CLASS- X--> C, B, P(26/27)

BIOLOGY 

TEST PAPER -19

SECTION I(40 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this section 

Question 1.

a) Name the following:   (5)

i) The set of production of sperma in man.

ii) The gland which secrets insulin.

iii) The pigment due to which leaf is green.

iv) The chromosomes which has centromere at the middle .

v) The international organisation which works on health of the people. 

b) Given below is an example of a certain structure and the special functional activity with which it is concerned.     (5)

For example: Platelets and clotting of blood.

On a similar pattern, fill in the blanks in the following pairs to represent relationships between the structures and their special functional activity.

i) Chlorophyll and____(in green plants).

ii) Light reaction and_____

iii) ______ and transpiration.

iv) Myelin sheath _____.

c) Select one suitable word from three alternatives gives to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.   (5)

i) The foetus draws its oxygen from _____ (amniotic fluid, placenta, umbilical cord)

ii) The middle ear is filled with ____ (air, water, gas)

iii) Sertoli cells give nourishment to ____(sperms, ova, foetus)

iv) Nasal passage is lined by-----(ciliated epithelium, flagella, cilia)

v) Potometer is an instrument by measuring the rate of ____ (transpiration, photosynthesis, respiration)

d) The diagrams that follows represents section of the eye of a mammal.   (5)

i) Name the parts number 1 to 12.

ii) Which structure in the eye are mainly responsible for:

    A) the alteration of the shape of the lens.

   B) the construction of the pupil in bright light.

   C) the best perception of image ?

iii) How does the transmission of nerve from the eye to the brain takes place?

e) State one difference in each of the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in brackets after each.     (5)

i) Hypodermis and epidermis (types of cells).

ii) Transpiration and guttation (importance)

f) Mention whether the following statements are true or false:   (5)

i) Corpus collosum is present in the ovary.

ii)  Disinfectants are used in the destroy microbes .

iii) Optic nerve is sensory in nature.

iv) Rod cells contain iodopsin.

v) Transport of water in stem takes place through xylem.

g) State one function of the following:    (5)

i) Cuticle on the leaf surface.

ii) KOH used in some photosynthesis experiments.

iii) Thylakoid 

iv) Centrosome 

v) β-cells of pancreas.

h) Write the odd one out and give a reason for your answer.    (5)

i) Pancreas, adrenal, insulin, thyroid.

ii) Spermatogenesis , testes,  overies, meiosis.

iii) Myopia , eye, surgery, concave lens.

iv) Spleen , thymus, pancreas, tonsil.

v) Typhoid, tuberculosis, measles, cholera.

SECTION - II

(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 2.

a) The figure represent an experiment performed to demonstrate a particular aspect of photosynthesis. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:   (5)

i) What is the aim of the experiment ?

ii) Name the gas which is collected at the top of water level in the test tube.

iii) What will happen if boiled water is taken instead of pond water.

iv) If sodium bicarbonate is added to the water.

v) Write the overall equation of photosynthesis.

b) Define the following:    (5)

i) Photophorylation

ii) Turgor Pressure 

iii) Plasma 

iv) Nerve.

Question 3

a) Given below is a diagram of L. S of human testis. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.    (5)

i) Label the guidelines.

ii) Give the functions of parts labelled (2) and (5).

iii) Name the sac in which testis are suspended.

b) Name the instrument used for measure root pressure.

ii) List the factors affecting the transpiration.

iii) Name the cell organelle which starts cell division in animal cells.

iv) Write briefly about the role of the respiration in plants.

v) How is solubility useful to plants ?      (5)

Question 4.

a) Given below is the internal structure (sectional view) of the ovary human female. Answer the questions that follow :      (5)

i) Name the structure numbered (3)

ii) How is structure (1) different from structure ?

iii) Name structure (2).

iv) Name the hormone secreted by the structure ?

v) Name the process by which structure(4) is discharged from ovary.

b) Differentiate between the following pairs:   (5)

i) Cerebrum and q.

ii) Corpus callosum and corpus luteum.

iii) Fertilization and parthenogenesis.

iv) Rod and cone cells.

v) Prostrate gland and cowper's gland.

Question 5.

a) An experiment set up is shown. Study carefully and answer the questions which follow. Test tube A, B, C, D were kept in day light for 4 days and were observed thereafter .   (5)

i) What is the state of plant and water level test tube A ?

ii) What is that state of plant in water level in test tube B ?

iii) What will happen to the level of water and in test tube C ?

iv) What will happen to the level of water and oil in test tube D ?

v) What does this experiment indicate  ?

b) i) Draw a diagram of the human sperm and label the following:   (5)

Acrosome , nucleus, Centrioles, mitochondria, chondrial sheath and trial.

ii) Define artificial insemination.

iii) What do you understand by the term capacitation?

Question 6.

a) The following is a diagram showing developing human foetus in the womb . Stl

the same and answer the questions that follow.    (5)

i) Name the part 1 to 5 indicated by guidelines.

ii) Name the term used for the period of development of foetus in the womb.

b) Give appropriate terms for the following:     (5)

i) A solution having higher concentration of solute than solvent.

ii) Adjustment of the eye for a clear vision of object at varying distances.

iii) A change of activity due to stimulus.

iv) A condition caused due to deficiency of thydroxine.

v) Condition of cell after loosing water.

Question 7.

Explain briefly the following statements:       (10)

a)  One usually feels dizzy at high altitudes .

b) Plants growing in fertilized soil are often to wilt if the soil is not watered adequately.

c) On sprinkling common salt on grass growing in the lawn, the grass is killed.

d) Some plants show wilting of their leaves during mid day even when the soil well watered.

e) Wilted lettuce leaves if kept in cold water to become crisp.

BIOLOGY 

PAPER -1

Time allowed: 1:30 hours 

Paper -1

       Section I(40 Marks)

   Attempt all questions from this section 

Question 1.

a) : Name the following:      (5)

i) Microscopic pores surrounded by kidney-shaped guard cells on the undersurface of leaves.

ii) The fluid surrounding the developing embryo .

iii) The junction between two nerve cells.

iv) The fluid in the posterior chamber of the human eye.

v) A fluid that transports fatty acids and glycerol .

b) Given below is an example of a certain structure and the special functional activity with which it is concerned.     (5)

 For example: Epiglottis and prevention of food from entering the trachea during swallowing.

On a similar pattern, fill in the blanks in the following pairs of represent relationships between the structures and their special function activity.

i) _____ and auditory nerve.

ii) _____ and change in focal length of the eye lens.

iii) _____and cuticular transpiration.

iv) _____and acting as bearer of hereditary units .

v) Phloem and ______ .

c) Select one suitable word from the three alternative given to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.    (5)

i)  When there is no movement of water into the cell from the outside medium, the medium is considered as____ to the cell sap.    (hypertonic /isotonic/hypotonic)

ii) The chemicals used to decrease the rate of transpiration is___. (transperants/ anti-transpirants/ chemo-transpiration)

iii) Peripheral nervous system comprises ____ nerves.  (spinal/ motor/ sensory)

iv) Sperm head contains _____ .  (mitochondria/ nucleus/yilk)

v) _____ covers the brain.   (meninges/ pericardium /pleura)

d) Study the diagram given alongside and answer the questions that follow. 

 (5)

i) What is the diagram representing ?

ii) Name the part 'X' found in roots.

iii) Explain the significance of structure  'X' in these roots.

iv) What is the significance of such type of plants in agriculture ?

e) State one difference in each of the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in brackets after each.   (5)

i) Respiration and photosynthesis (gas released).

ii) Cerebrum and cerebellum (function).

iii) Transpiration and photosynthesis (definition).

iv) Adrenaline and non-adrenaline(function).

v) Myopia and hypermetropia (corrective lens used).

f) Mention whether the following statements at true or false: (5)

i) Destarching is removal of starch from plants.

ii) it is important to destarch the green plant before starting with experiment on photosynthesis.

iii) Photosynthesis occurs in all plants.

iv) Central nervous system only includes brain .

v) Each testis is covered by a layer of connective tissue called tunica albuginea.

g) State one man function of the following:   (5)

i) Chromatid 

ii) Vagus nerve 

iii) Seminal vesicle 

iv) Grana of chloroplast 

v) Vaccine 

h) Write the odd one out and give a reason for your answer.   (5)

i) Overy, fallopian tube, ureter, uterus.

ii) Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, schizophrenia.

iii) Thyroid gland, adrenal gland, prostate gland, pituitary gland.

iv) Phenylketonuria, diabetes mellitus, cholera , haemophilia.

v) G₁, S, G₂, 2N.

  Section II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question -2

a) Following is a diagram to represent an experiment performed to demonstrate a certain phenomenon in plants. The set-up was kept in sunlight for about 2 hours.  Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:

(5)

i) What is the aim of the experiment ?

ii) Define the process mentioned in (i) above.

iii) What do you observe in the experiment as an evidence of the process stated in (i) and (ii) above ?

iv) What precautions are taken for proper results in the experiment ?

v) Suggest a suitable control experiment for comparison.

b) Define the following :        (5)

i) Mesovarium

ii) Tympanum 

iii) Fertilization

iv) Reproduction 

v) Unconditional reflex

Question -3

a) Given alongside is the diagrammatic display of certain phenomenon, which are part of this living world.   

 (5)

i)  Identift the process in diagram A and B.

ii) State the significance of life process A in plants as well as an animals, giving examples .

iii) State the significance of process B in plants and animals.

b) i) What do you understand by the term immunity ?

ii) What is heterozygous condition ?

iii) Name two nutritional deficiency disease and give their causes.   (5)

Question -4

a) A pondweed was placed in a test tube containing pond water and was exposed to bright sunlight. Bubbles evolved at the cut end of the stem as shown in the figure. In dimlight and in darkness, no bubbles evolved .   

(5)

i) Name the gas evolved in bright light.

ii) What is the process in which plants produce this gas ?

iii) As the light intensity decreased, the rate of bubbling slowed down and finally stopped.Why did the bubbles stop when there was still some light shining on the plant ?

iv) Gaseous exchange still takes place in a plant in darkness, i.e., gas is steel being produced. Suggest one reason why gas bubbles are not evolved in the darkness.

b) Differentiate between the following pairs:    (5)

i) Cerebrum and spinal cord.

ii) Vitreous humour and aqueous humour.

iii) Goitre cretinism.

iv) Vasa efferentia and vas deferns.

v) Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone(ADH) and oxytocin.

Question -5

a) Given here is a diagram to show certain phenomenon of the psychological process through an experiment. A cavity is cut in a a peeled potato which is filled with sugar solution. It is kept in beaker filled with water. A capillary tube is fitted with the help of a cork in the potato to note any change in the level of the liquid. The set up is kept for two hours, it is observed that the level of liquid in the capillary rises.   

(5)

i) State the reason for its change in the level of the liquid in capillary tube.

ii) What happens to the level of water in the beaker ?

iii) What psychological processes is being shown here ? Define.

iv) What will happen if you replace water with stronger solution than that present inside the potato?

v) How do flaccid cabbage leaves regain their shape if kept in water?

b) i) Draw a diagram of female reproductive system and label the parts numbered (1) to (6).

ii) Name the part of the structure cut.

iii) Name the process of 'cutting' the part of oviduct.     (5)

Question -6

a) The diagram below represents the structure of human ear. 

(5)

i) Write the names of parts labelled A to G.

ii) State briefly the functions of parts D and E.

iii) Give dual function of human ear.

b) Give appropriate terms for the following:     (5)

i) A statistical study of the human population of a origin.

ii) The middle coat of the eye.

iii) The method of cuttings spermatic ducts in males.

iv) The nerves originated from spinal cord.

v) The property of the eye to focus images of distant and near objects.

Question -7

Explain briefly the following statements:    (10) 

a) A higher rate of transpiration is recorded on a windy day rather than on a calm day.

b) Leguminous crops act as natural fertilisers .

c) Transpiration is a price pay for photosynthesis.

d) Why is it alarming to live in cities where nuclear power plants are located ?

e) A heart-patient is advised to take low fat diet

Chemistry 

TEST PAPER -3

Section I(40 Marks)

(Attempt all)

Question 1

a) From the following list of acids , choose the one acid and each case, which matches the description (i) to (vi) given below.      (6)

(Concentrated sulphuric acid, dilute sulphuric acid, concentrated nitric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid, concentrated hydrochloric acid, dilute nitric acid)

i)  The acid present in three parts by volume in aqua regia.

ii) The acid which reacts with zinc liberating Sulphur dioxide.

iii) The acid which was initially called 'oil or vitriol' and oxidizes carbon to carbon dioxide.

iv) The acids which reacts with iron[II] sulphate liberating nitric oxide.

v) The acid which reacts with lead nitrate to give a white precipitate soluble in hot water.

vi) The acid prepared by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. 

b) State why the following statements are not correct.   (6)

i) All ammonium salts on heating with alkali evolve ammonia.

ii) Lead[II] oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to precipitate lead chloride salt.

iii) Sulphate and hydroxyl ions are discharged at the anode during electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes .

iv) Hydrogen fluoride is a considered a polar covalent compound where the shared electron pair is attracted towards the hydrogen atom.

v) The periodic table is so arranged such that alectrons in the outer shell of elements in the same group increase progressively by one on going down a group.

vi) if 5 liters of Sulphur dioxide contains 'n' molecules than 5 litres of ammonia also contains  'n' molecules.

c) i) What is meant by the statement 'Basicity of phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) is three .

ii) Name the acid salts of phosphoric acid.

iii) ' When a salt is heated with an acid the less volatile acid displaces the more volatile acid'.  Give a balanced equation to justify the statement.    

iv) Starting from insoluble zinc hydroxide, how would you obtain insoluble zinc carbonate.

v) If the salt-molten calcium chloride is electrolyzed, state the product at the anode. (5)

d) i) Complete the following statement "Empirical formula of a compound is the formula which shows the ______".

ii) 0.70g of a gaseous hydrocarbon contains 0.60g of carbon. If its vapour density is 35, determine its molecular formula. (C= 12, H= 1).   C₅H₁₀ 

iii) 3 x 10²² molecules of a diatomic gas 'X' are present in an enclosed cylinder.  Calculate the weight in g. of the gas at STpr. (At.wt of X=35.5).   (5).  3.54

e) What do you see when:     (4)

i) Copper [II] sulphate is electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

ii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added to ethyl alcohol at elevated temperature and the gas liberated is bubbled through a solution of alkaline potassium permanganate solution. 

iii) Crystals of zinc nitrate are heated strongly.

iv) A mixture of copper, Sodium nitrate and a concentrated sulphuric acid are heated strongly.

f) When a mixture of ethyne and oxygen are ignited, carbon dioxide and water vapour are formed as the products of combusion. If the volume of the product carbon dioxide at STP is found to be 200cc, calculate the volume of ethyne in the original mixture.  (3)    100cc

g) Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following: (5)

i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride gas using a glass rod.

ii) Sodium chloride and sodium nitrate using an acid.

iii) Sodium sulphite and sodium sulphate using a barium salt solution.

iv) Zinc hydroxide and lead hydroxide using liquor ammonia.

v) Zinc oxide and zinc using an alkali.

h) Give balanced the equations for the following reactions between two gases.  (6)

i) Ammonia and hydrogen chloride.

ii) Ammonia and excess chlorine.

iii) Ammonia and oxygen in absence of a catalyst.

iv) Sulphur dioxide and oxygen in presence of a catalyst at elevated temperatures .

v) Ethylene and chlorine in presence of an inert solvent.

vi) Methane on burning in excess of oxygen.

SECTION II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions)

Question 2

a) i) State the element other than hydrogen in period 1 of the modern periodic table.

ii) Name the element present in period 3 which belongs to the same group to that of the element stated in (a)(i) above.

iii) State the electronic configuration of the element stated in (a)(ii) above .   (3)

b) i) Explain the term 'periodic properties'.

ii) State the periodic property of an element which

     1. Decrease on moving from left to right in a period.

     2. Increases on moving down a group in a period.       (2)

c) Compare the elements of group 1A with elements of group VIIA with respect to

i) Number of valence electrons.

ii) valency.

iii) Conduction of electricity.

iv) Oxidising/reducing nature.

v) Metallic/non metallic character.     (5)

Question 3

a) Name the following:     (2(

i) A non-metal which is lustrous but does not conduct electricity.

ii) The alkali metal present in period 3 group IA.

b) Choose the correct word or phrase from the bracket to complete the following sentences.     (5)

i) A metalic sulphide ore containing lead is _____(cinnabar, barite, galena)

ii) The reduced product obtained when Sulphur dioxide is  bubbled into chlorine water is _____(sulphuric acid, hydrochloric acid, sulphurous acid).

iii) Dry chlorine reacts with dry Sulphur dioxide in presence of sunlight to give____( sulphur monochloride, Sulphuryl chloride, sulphurous chloride).

iv) Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with ethyl alcohol at 170°C to give the dehydrated product _____(ethane, ethylene, ethyne).

v) When hydrogen sulphide gas is bubbled through zinc nitrate solution a _____(black, white, yellow ) precipitate of zinc sulphide is obtained.

c) Give reasons for the following:    (3)

i) A colour change is seen when concentric sulphuric acid is added crystals of sugar.

ii) A solution of copper sulphate can be diluted by addition of water to it but a solution of concentrated sulphuric acid cannot be similarly diluted.

Question 4

a) Complete the statements given below by filling in the blanks with appropriate word from the bracket.     (5)

i) A non-metal which has lustre other than the carbon allotrope graphite is ___(boron, sulphur,iodine)

ii) A metal which is a liquid at ordinary temperature, other than Mercury is ____(Sodium, lead, gallium ).

iii) Metal generally have____ electrons in their outer shells (2,3,4/ 1, 2, 3/ 5, 6,7/4,5,6,7).

iv) Metals lose valence electrons and form_____(cations, anions, cations & anions).

v) Metals generally from____ oxidizes (acidic, basic, amphoteric,neutral).

b) Name the following :    (3)

i) A metal carbonate soluble in water, which does not decompose on heating.

ii) A metal which does not form a hydroxide.

iii) A metal which occurs in the free or native state.

c) Give balanced equations for the following Conversions:    (2)

i) Aluminium hydroxide to Aluminium oxide.

ii) Aluminium to sodium aluminate.

Question 5

a) From the following organic compounds given below, choose one compound in each case which relates to the description (i) to vi) given below:     (6)

Ethyne , Methane , Ethene , Methanol, Ethane, Acetic acid

i)  A saturated hydrocarbon containing two carbon atoms.

ii) An unsaturated hydrocarbon used in the production of oxy-acetylene torch .

iii) An olefin having a double bond.

iv) A hydrocarbonate which reacts with chlorine to give methyl chloride.

v) An organic compound whose functional group is 'carboxyl'.

vi) An saturated hydrocarbon which on hydrogenation in presence of a catalyst nickel, yields a saturated hydrocarbon.

b) How are organic compounds classified.    (1)

c) Draw the isomers of butane.     (1)

d) Give balanced equations for the following conversions: (2)

i)  Ethane to carbon dioxide.

ii) Ethene to 12 dibromoethane.

Question 6

a) Complete and balance the following ionic equations:    (2)

i) HCl + H₂O <=>

ii) H₂SO₄ + H₂O <=>

b) Differentiate between the following terms:    (3)

i) Basicity of acid and acidity of bases.

ii) Concentrated acid and strong acid.

iii) Diabasic acid and diacidic base.

c)  'A salt when heated with an acid undergoes double decomposition reaction whereby the less volatile acid displaces the more volatile acid '.:   (2)

Give two different reactions relating to the above statement 

d) Name the following salts:    (3)

i) A mixed salt containing two acid radicals.

ii) An insoluble sulphate other than lead and barium sulphate.

iii) A salt other than sodium sulphate prepared in the laboratory using titration for its preparation.

Question 7

a) The vapour density of a gas 'A' is 15.5. Calculate the number of moles of the gas and its volume at STP in 2.6g of the gas.    (3)    .084 moles and 1.88 l

b) A hydrocarbon contain 17.2% of hydrogen. If its molecular weight is 58, determine its molecular formula. Draw the structural diagram of the two isomers of the hydrocarbon. (C= 12, H= 1).    (4)        C₄H₁₀ 

c) Aluminium burns in oxygen forming aluminium oxide. If the weight of aluminium and oxygen used are 9.0g and 8.0g respectively, calculate the mass of aluminium oxide formed. Will there be any residual oxygen after completion of the reaction.(Al= 27, O=16).  (3).      17.0

TEST- PAPER (2)

           SECTION I(40 Marks)

                (Compulsory)

Question 1 

a) From the following list of salts, , choose the one substance in each case which relates to the description given below.      (6)

Iron(III) chloride, sodium sulphide, iron[II] sulphate, sodium carbonate, copper sulphate-5 water, zinc carbonate, copper [II] chloride, potassium sulphide, lead nitrate, zinc sulphide, ammonium carbonate.

i) A salt whose aqueous solution reacts with sodium chloride solution to precipitate out an insoluble salt.

ii) A metallic carbonate insoluble in water.

iii) An efflorescent coloured salt.

iv) A soluble salt which reacts with caustic soda to give a green precipitate insoluble in excess of caustic soda solution.

v) A deliquescent salt formed by direct combination between a metal and an acetic gas.

vi) A metallic sulphide insoluble in water.

b) In each of the statements given below supply the word/s to make each incorrect statement a correct statement. Write the correct statement with the replaced word/s in full.    (4)

i)  Sulphur dioxide gas turns potassium dichromate solution from orange to green.

ii) Action of heat on copper and nitric acid liberates nitrogen dioxide.

iii) As per the modern periodic law the physical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

iv) When ammonia reacts with chlorine, oxidation of ammonia to nitrogen take place.

c) i) Define the terms 'relative molecular mass' and 'molar volume'.     (6)

ii) Calculate the number of moles and the number of molecules in 6.62g of lead nitrate. [Pb= 207, Na= 14, O= 16].           0.02moles, 9.1204x10²³ molecules 

iii) How many grams of ammonia will contain the same number of molecules as 1.1g of carbon dioxide [C=12, O= 16, N= 14, H= 1].      0.425g.          

d) Choose the correct word or phrases from the brackets to complete the following sentences.     (5)

i) _____[sodium carbonate, lead acetate, sodium chloride] is example of a strong electrolyte while _____(potassium sulphate, sodium hydrogen carbonate, lead bromide) is an example of a weak electrolyte.

ii) Electrolysis of acidicfied water results in migration of ____(SO₄²⁻, OH¹⁻) ion/s to the _____(anode, cathode) with______(H¹⁺, SO₄²⁻, OH¹⁻) ion/s being discharged at the respective electrode.

e) Name the gas evolved when the following reactants are heated:    (3)

i) Sodium propionate and soda lime.

ii) Aluminium and concentrated sulphuric acid.

iii) Sulphur and concentric nitric acid.

f) What do you see when:     (3)

i) Ammonium chloride is mixed with caustic soda and heated and the gas evolved burnt in air.

ii) Sulphur is burnt in air and the product obtained is bubbled slowly and then in excess through calcium hydroxide solution.

iii) A piece of the iron is added to copper[II] sulphate solution.

g)  Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following:     (5)

i)  Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide gas.

ii) Hydrogen chloride and hydrogen sulphide gas.

iii) Barium sulphite and barium sulphate. 

iv) Calcium nitrate and Zinc nitrate.

v) Sodium chloride and sodium sulphide.

 

h) Give balanced equation for the following conversions.    (8) 

i) Sodium hydrogen carbonate to sodium sulphate.

ii) Zinc oxide to sodium zincate.

iii) Ethyne to 1, 1, 2, 2 tetra-chloroethane.

iv) Ammonium carbonate to zinc carbonate.

v) Iron (III) sulphide to iron (III) sulphate.

vi) Hydrogen sulphide to hydrogen chloride.

vii) Copper hydroxide to determine copper sulphate.

viii) Aluminium to sodium aluminate.

SECTION II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions)

Question 2

a) i) State the number of non-metallic elements in period 2 of the Modern Periodic Table.

ii) Name the metalloid in period 3 of the Periodic Table.

iii) Which of the three elements - Berylliumm boron or lithium has the largest atomic size.

iv) State the group of the Periodic Table to which the elements- Flulorine , chlorine and bromine belong.        (4)

b) i)  Define the periodic property 'atomic size'.

ii) State why group zero elements having electron affinity value '0'.

iii) State the trend in density of elements on moving across a period and a down a group.     (3)

c) Supply the missing word from those given in the brackets :     (2)

Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have_____(different/ same) number of valence electrons, while elements of the same period have _____(same/different) number of electron shells.

d) What happens to the electronegativity on moving down a group in the Periodic Table .  (1)

Question 3

a) How would you convert hydrogen sulphide to sulphur using-

i) A colourless gas.

ii) An acid.

iii) A salt solution.     (3)

b) Give balanced equations for the following conversions involving sulphur dioxide as one of the reactants.    (3)

i) Calcium oxide to calcium sulphite.

ii) Chlorine to Sulphuryl chloride.

iii) Chlorine to hydrochloric acid.

c)  How would you obtain the following using sulphuric acid as one of the reactants. (4)

i) An acid salt using caustic soda.

ii) An acid salt using rock salt.

iii) A neutral gas using an organic acid.

iv) A neutral gas using an active metal.

Question 4

a) i) State the most reactive and the least reactive metal from the following metals - Mg, Cu, Fe, Hg.    

ii) Write the equation for the roasting of zinc blende.

iii) In the above reaction a(ii) give a reason why zinc blande is roasted during its metallurgy.

iv) Name the reducing agent used for reduction of the product obtained on roasting on the zinc blende.      (5)

b) i) Name the substance added to each substance given below to obtain the product given in the bracket.    (2)

    1. Bauxite (to obtain sodium aluminium).

    2. Aluminium (to obtain Sulphur dioxide)

c) State the property of the alloys given below which make it useful for the particular application.      (3)

i) Solder - in electrical fuse.

ii) Magnalium -- in aircrafts.

iii) Stainless steel - in cutly.

Question 5

a) Give the structural formula of:       (4)

i) A paraffin above propane in the homologous series.

ii) An olefin whose common name is ethylene.

iii) An unsaturated hydrocarbon with a triple bond.

iv) Formic acid (methanoic acid).

b) State the typical reaction undergone by a(1) and by a(ii) above.    (2)

c) Name the substance added to Sodium acetate to obtain methane in the laboratory. (1)

d) Give a reason why organic compounds are studies under a separate branch.  (1)

e) State the difference in 'composition' and 'reactivity' of organic and inorganic compounds.    (1)

f) State the general characteristic of members of homologous series with reference to chemical and physical properties.    (1)

Question 6

a) (i) Starting from Ammonia how would you obtain ammonium chloride using:

     i) An acetic gas only.

    ii) An aqueous solution of an acid.    (2)

ii) Starting from magnesium how would you obtain Ammonia in not more than two steps .  (2)

b) Name the following:     (3)

i) The reduce product obtained when ammonia is passed over heated copper oxide.

ii) The gas obtained when the product of catalytic oxidation of ammonia undergoes further oxidation.

iii) The substance added to ammonia to obtain liquor Ammonia.

c) Give balance equation4 for the action of heat on:     (3)

i) Nitric acid.

ii) Copper and concentric nitric acid.

iii) Carbon and concentrated nitric acid.

Question 7

a) Arrange the four nitrogen compounds in decreasing order of nitrogen content present in them.      (4)

A: ammonium nitrate

B:  ammonium chloride

C: ammonium sulphate

D:  ammonium carbonate           A, D, B, C

b) A cylinder can hold 1.4 kg of hydrogen at STP. calculate :    (4)

i) The weight of nitrogen and of chlorine it can hold at STP.

ii) The number of molecules of each of the above gases present in the flask. (N= 14, Cl = 35.5).       19.6kg, 49.7kg, 700x 6.023x 10²³

c) 88g of a compound of carbon and oxygen only, contains 64g of oxygen. Determine its empirical formula. (C= 12, O=16).         (2).     CO₂

CHEMICAL BONDING 

A) Complete the statements given below- by filling in the blanks with the correct word/s.  

a) An atom 'X' has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. It has____ total number of electrons, _____electrons in its valence shell and will____( gain/ lose) ____ electrons to become a/an____(cations/ anion).  It is thus a _____(non metallic/ metallic) element.

b) An atom 'Y' has atomic number 17 and mass number 35.5. It has____ total number of electrons, ____ electrons in its valence shell and will ____(gain/ lose) ____ electrons to become a/an_____(cation/anion). It is thus a ____(non metallic/metallic) element.

B) Complete the statement given below- for formation from atoms.

a) Noble gases have stable/unstable electronic configuration.

• Their outermost shell is complete/incomplete.

• They do/do not gain lose or share ions/ electrons.

• They are chemically reactive/unreactive.

b) The driving force for atoms to combine is related to tendency of each atoms to attain stable electronic configuration of He/Ne/nearest noble gas.

c) For an atom to achieve stable electronic configuration it must have two /eight valence electrons as per the duplet rule or 2/8 electrons as per the octet rule.

d) Achieving chemical bonding involves electron transfer of Vpvalence electrons from one atom to another leading to covalent/electrovalent bonding or electron sharing, leaing to covalent/electrovalent bonding.

C) State which of the following statements are false. If false write the correct statement.

a) X(metallic atom + 1e⁻ ---> X¹⁻

b) Y(non metallic atom)+ 1e⁻ ---> Y¹⁺

c) Z(2, 8, 8, 2) loses 2 electrons and has electronegativite valency -2.

d) Electrovalent bonds are also called a molecular bonds.

e) Chemical compound formed as a result of transfer of one or more electrons from an electronegative element to an electropositive element is called an electrovalent compound.

f) Cations are electrically neutral particles which may or may not exist independently in solution.

g) X ---> X²⁺ + 2e⁻ is an example of a reduction reaction.

h) 2Cl¹⁻ ---> Cl₂ + 2e⁻

i) Fe³⁺ + 1e⁻ ----> Fe²⁺ is an example of a reduction reaction.

D) Electronic configuration of the following elements A, B, C, D, E are given:

a) 'A' -  2, 6

b) 'B' - 2, 8, 2

c) 'C' - 2, 8, 1

d) 'D' --  2, 1

e) 'E' - 2, 8, 7 

f) 'F' - 2,8, 3

 Using only the elements A, B, C, D, E and F given above, write the formulas of eight different electrovalent compounds fomed between them.

E) Complete the 

i) ionic equation

ii) electron dot structural diagram of the following:

a) Sodium chloride

b) Calcium oxide

c) Magnesium chloride 

d) Sodium sulphide 

F) Write the i) atomic number ii) number of shared pair of electrons iii) formula of covalent compound of followings:

a) Two atoms of A

b) Two atoms of B

c) Two atoms of C

d) Two atoms of D

e) Two atoms of E

f) Four atoms of A and one atom of F

g) Four atoms of E and one atom of F

h) Three atoms of A and one atom of B

i) Two atoms of A and one atom of C

G) Rewrite the correct word/s for each of the following statements-

Pertaining to covalent compounds:

a) The chemical bond found during to transfer of electrons between the given pairs of atoms and metallic elements is called qcovalent bond.

b) The number of ion pairs which an atom shares with one or more atoms of the same or different kind to achieve stable electronic configuration is called covalency 

c) Covalent compounds are said to be nonpolar when the shared pair of electrons is unequally distributed between the two atoms and polar when it is equally distributed.

d) In methane charge separation takes place and the covalent molecule is electrically charged.

e) In hydrogen chloride the less electronegative atom chlorine attracts the electron pair towards its Hydrogen acquires a slight negative charge and chlorine a slight positive charge due to shared pair being attracted more strongly towards it.

f) Atoms having different electronegativities generally form non-polar covalent compounds.

g) Molecules of water Ammonia are examples of non-polar covalent compounds.

h) Formation of chlorine molecules from two chlorine atoms involves each contributing, two shared pairs of electrons; thereby both atoms attaining stable duplet structure.

H) A, B, C, D, E, F, G are elements having atomic numbers.

A= 13, B= 15, C= 10, D= 8, E=12, F= 17, G= 1 

a) State which of the above:

i) Is an inert gas.

ii) Is a metal

iii) Is a non-metal 

iv) Has a valency of +3.

v) Has a valency of - 2.

vi) Forms a cation (positive ion)

vii) Forma an anion (negative ion)

b) State the formula of the compound formed between.

i) A and D

ii) E and F 

iii) A and F

iv) E and D

c) State the type of bonding:

i) Between two atoms of D

ii) Between an atoms of E and F 

iii) Between two atoms of G and one atoms of D

d) State which of the above:

i) Shows oxidizing properties

ii) Shows reducing properties

iii) Is extracted by electrolysis of its fused salt.

e) State the formula of :

i) The sulphate of A

ii) The hydroxide of E

f) State the properties of the compound formed 

 (with reference to the m.p and b.p., solubility conductivity)

i) Between two atoms of F.

ii) Between an atom of A and F.

I)

Electrovalent compounds show a variation in physical and chemical properties --

When compared to covalent compounds.

Give reasons for the following:

a) An electrovalent compound e.g., sodium chloride is a hard solid at ordinary temperature while covalent compounds are generally gases, liquid or soft solids at room temperatures .

b) The physical constants namely, melting and boiling points of electrovalent compounds are comparatively higher when considered with reference to liquid or gaseous covalent compounds.

c) Sodium chloride in molten or aqueous solution state is an electrolyte i.e., conducts electricity while methane is non-electrolyte.

d)  Ammonia is covalent in nature but it aqueous solution conducts electricity.

e) Water dissolves most of the electrovalent compounds, while nonpolar covalent compounds generally dissolve in organic solvents [eg., benzene] and polar covalent compounds dissolve in water.

f) Covalent compounds show slow incomplete molecular reactions while electrovalent compounds show high speed ionic reactions.

TEST PAPER -1

SECTION I (40 Marks)

(Attempt all)

Question 1 

a) Answer the following questions relating to your answer only to the gases in the list given below :  (5)

(Ammonia, hydrogen chloride, Sulphur dioxide, nitrogen, oxygen , hydrogen, nitric oxide, methane, ethene)

i) Two gases which react under relevant conditions to give a gas which turns a solution of potassium mercuric iodide brown.

ii) A gas which is absorbed by iron(II) sulphate solution to give a brown addition compound.

iii) Two gases which react to give a reddish brown acidic gas.

iv) Two gases which react in presence of a catalyst at elevated temperature to give an alcohol.

v) Two gases which react to give a solid which reacts with an alkali to give back one of the reactant gases.    

b) The following questions pertain to chemical bonding :  (6)

i) Differentiate between the terms -- 'electrovalent bond' and 'covalent bond'.

ii) Draw the electron dot structure and orbit structure to depict the formation of 

A) Sodium chloride

B) Carbon tetrachloride (²³₁₁Na, ³⁵₁₇Cl, ¹²₆ C).

c) In this question you are required to supply the word/s that will make each sentence into a correct statement which is to be written down in full. (5)

Example: Magnesium nitride reacts with water to liberate ammonia .

Answer: Magnesium nitride reacts with warm water to liberate ammonia .

i) Activity series is a series arranged according to their decreasing reactivity.

ii) Ammonia reacts with lead[II] oxide liberating nitrogen.

iii) Aqua regia contains one part of nitric acid and three parts of hydrochloric acid.

iv) Ethyl alcohol is dehydrated by sulphuric acid at elevated temperatures liberating ethene gas.

v) Anions migrate during electrolysis and get discharged.

d) i) Give a reason why pure water is termed as a non-electrolyte while acidified water an electrolyte.

ii) Name the product formed at the anode during electrolysis of aqueous sodium silver cyanide solution.

iii) State which of the following salts is a weak electrolyte  - Silver nitrate, sodium carbonate, copper chloride.

iv) State which of the following substances contains both ions and molecules - Sodium hydroxide solution, acetic acid, molten bromide.

v) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place at the anode during electrolysis of acidified water.   (5)

e) i) What is empirical formula of the compound having the following percentage composition:

Fe= 72.38% and O= 27.62% (Fe=56, O=16).         Fe₃O₄ 

ii) Iron pyrites and (FeS₂) on roasting in air (oxygen) give iron[III] oxide and Sulphur dioxide. Calculate the weight of a iron pyrite which must be roasted to produce 5000g of Sulphur dioxide gas.(S= 32).       4.687

iii) Combustion of ethane yield carbon dioxide and water vapour. Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide formed at s.t.p and the number of moles of oxygen needed for the combustion of 60g of ethane.   89.6, 7.        (8)

f) What do you see :      (6)

i) Brahmin is passed into a solution of ethyne in an inert solvent.

ii) Ammonia-oxygen mixture is passed over heated platinum.

iii) Lead[II] oxide is reacted with the dilute nitric acid and the residual solution formed is mixed with sodium chloride solution.

iv) Zinc nitrate is heated strongly in air.

v) Hydrogen sulphide gas is bubbled through concentrated sulphuric acid and the gas liberated is then bubbled through iron[III] sulphate solution.

vi) Excess ammonium hydroxide is added to the solution formed on reaction between lead carbonate and dilute nitric acid in excess.     (6)

g) Write balanced equation for each of the following reactions involving an oxide.  (5)

i) Lead[IV] oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid.

ii) Lead [II] oxide (heated) and ammonia.

iii) Zinc oxide and dilute nitric acid.

iv) Sodium oxide and Sulphur dioxide.

v) Iron[III] oxide and Aluminium.

SECTION II (40 Marks)

(Attempt Any four questions)

Question 2

a) Define the following period properties

i) Ionization potential.

ii) Electronegativity.       (2)

b) State the following pertaining to the Periodic Table .  (4)

i) The period of the Periodic Table which has two elements in its period.

ii) The period to which the element carbon belongs.

iii) The element in period 2 with the highest ionization potential.

iv) The noble gas present in period two of the Periodic Table .

c) Supply the missing word/s in the blank a below:   (4)

 Sodium is an ___metal belonging to group ____of the periodic table. It has___ electron/s in its valence shell and is strong____ agent.

Question 3

a) How would you prove that --  Sulphuric acid contains sulphur and hydrogen.    (2)

b) Name the following:   (3)

i) An explosive prepared using concentrated sulphuric acid.

ii) The anhydride of sulphuric acid used during the manufacture of explosives.

iii) A fertilizer manufactured using sulphuric acid during the process of manufacture.

c) Give reason - for the use of sulphuric acid in the following applications:  (3)

i) In lead accumulators.

ii) In the preparation of nitric acid from sodium nitrate.

iii) Before tin-plating and galvanization of iron.

d) State which chemical property of sulphuric acid is involved in the following conversions :   (2)

i) Nitre to aqua fortis.

ii) Hydrogen sulphide to sulphur.

Question 4

a) The following questions refer to the extraction of aluminium from its ores.  (5)

i) Give the common name of the principal ore of aluminium.

ii) Purification of the above ore in question a(i) involves 3 major steps.

Give balanced equations for the three steps involved in the purification of the impure ore.

iii) State the electrode at which pure aluminium is obtained on electrolytic reduction of fused alumina.

b) Give reason. (3)

i) Amalgamated sodium is preferred to sodium metal for use in the preparation of hydrogen.

ii) Zinc is added to copper in the right proportion for manufacture of hardware and screws.

iii) Magnalium and duralumin contain a small percentage of magnesium in addition to aluminium.

c) i) What is an amalgam. Name one liquid amalgam .

ii) State the metal present in the lead alloy-  'type metal' which is not present in alloy 'solder'.    (2)

Question 5

a) Give the IUPAC name and common name of the following hydrocarbons--

i) CH₄

ii) C₃H₆       (2)

b) i) Give a reason why the compound in a(i) above is called a saturated organic compound.

ii) State the characteric and typical reactions of the organic compound in a(i) above.

iii) Draw the electronic structure of the organic compound C₂H₂.  (3)

c) i) Name the first chlorination product obtained when CH₄ and C₂H₆ react with chlorine respectively.

ii) What is the special feature of C₂H₄ and C₂H₂ which differentiates them from the hydrocarbon in (a) (i) above .

iii) What type of reactions are undergone by the compounds C₂H₄ and C₂H₂.

iv) What is added to ethyl alcohol to obtain ethene in its laboratory preparation.  (5)

Question 6

a) What must be added to sodium chloride in the laboratory preparation of:

Hydrogen chloride gas.      (1)

b) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place in (a) above.  (1)

c) Starting from hydrochloric acid how would you obtain--      (4)

i) Chlorine using lead [IV] oxide.

ii) Chlorine using bleaching powder.

iii) Carbon dioxide using a soluble metallic bicarbonate.

iv) Hydrogen sulphide using a metallic sulphide.

d) Name the following:   (4)

i)  A salt formed when hydrogen chloride reacts with heated iron.

ii) The oxidising agent in Aqua regia .

iii) A metallic chloride insoluble in water and dilute nitric acid but soluble in liquor ammonia solution.

iv) The neutral gas obtained when hydrogen chloride undergoes thermal dissociation.

Question 7

a) Calcium nitrate, decomposes on heating to give calcium oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.

  i) Write the balanced equation for the above thermal decomposition.

 Calculate :

ii) The volume of nitrogen dioxide obtained at s.t.p.     1.12

iii) The weight of calcium oxide obtained when 4.1g of calcium nitrate is heated. (Ca= 40, O=16, N= 14).    1.4g.       (4)

b) Ammonia burns in oxygen of the air with a yellowish green flame , forming nitrogen and water as the only products.        (4)

i) Write the balanced equation for burning of ammonia in oxygen.

ii) Determine the volume of oxygen used and the volume of nitrogen obtained when 400 cc of ammonia burns in oxygen.     300,200

c) Calculate the percentage of oxygen in Nitre.   (K= 39, N=14, O= 16). (2)

PERIODIC TABLE 

A) Complete the statements by filling in the correct word in the blank from the word/s in bracket.

1) The periodic table is based on the basis fundamental property____(atomic weight/ atmic number/ electronic configuration).

2) Elements arranged in increasing order to atomic____:(numbers/weights).

3) ______horizontal rows called _____. (5/7/18/ periods/ groups )

4) _______vertical columns called ____(6/8/18/ periods /groups)

5) Transition from _____to _____character across a period. (metallic/non-metallic)

6) Groups _____ and ____subdivided into A and B.
7) Groups ____, _____ and _____ to____are called 'normal' - 'representive elements '

8) Groups ____to____are called 'transition elements '.

9) Group ____at extreme___ contains 'noble gases' (right/left)

10) ______ elements are placed in group ¹[1A] and 2[IIA]. (reactive, metalic/reactive, nonmetallic)

11) ____ elements are placed in the upper right hand corner . (nonmetallic/metallic)

12) Periodicity in properties i.e., recurrence in properties are seen with elements belonging to the same _____(period/group/sub- group) in the periodic table after a difference of ____, ____, ____, or ___(18/2/32/8) in atomic numbers due to recurrence of similar _____(atomic weights/ no. of shells/ valence electronic configuration).

13) Alkali metals Li, Na are present in group ____.

14) Alkaline earth metal Be, Mg are present in group _____

15) post-transition metal- Al is present in group______

16) Transition metal- Fe is present in group ______

17) Transition metal- Zn is present in group____

18) Lanthanide series are present in period_____

19) Actinides series are present in period ____.

B) Name of state the following __

1) The number of electron shells in period 1, 2 and 3 respectively.

2) The period number of the element 'X' having electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1.

3) The number of elements in the shortest period.

4) The number of short periods of the Periodic Table .

5) The metallic elements in period-2 and period-3.

6) The non-metallic elements in period-2 and period-3.

7) The element in period-2 and period-3 having stable electronic configuration.

8) The element in period-3 having 5 valence electrons.

9) The element in period-2 having electronic configuration 2, 4.

10) The period/s having 8 elements.

11) The element having one shell and one valence electron.

12) The period containing 

     i) rare earth elements.

    ii) radioactive elements.

13) The bridge element in period-2 which has a diagonal relationship with aluminium in period -3.

14) A metalloid in period -3.

15) The valency of the elements in period-2 

      i) group -15 [VA]

     ii) group 18 [0].

16) The type of bonding of the chloride of the element in period-3 , group-2 [IIA].

17) The type of bonding of the oxide of the elements in period-3, group 13[IIIA] and 16[VIA].

18) The state of the chloride of the element in period-3 group 16[VIA].

19) The character of the oxide of the element in period-3 group 2[IIA] and 13 [IIIA].

20) The character of the hydroxide of the element in period-3 group-2 [IIA].

21) The element in period-3 whose hydride is a strong acid.

22) Two property trends of elements which increase from left to right in a period.

C) Name of the state the following :

1) The number of valence electrons of the elements in group 1[IA] and in 2[IIA].

2) The group number of the group having 3 columns of elements.

3) The group number to which lithium and sodium belong.

4) The group number to which magnesium and calcium belong.

5) The group containing highly reactive, nonmetals only.

6) The group number to which elements with 7 valence electrons belou.

7) The type of elements present in group 3 to 12 [IB to VIIB].

8) The group to which inert , unreactive elements belong.

9) The group to which the most reactive metals belong.

10) The two property trends which increased down a sub-group.

11) A nonmetal in group 17[VIIA] which is liquid at a room temperature.

12) Two non metals which react with a group 17[VIIA] element forming liquid chlorides.

13) An element from group 1[1A] which reacts with an element of group 17[VIIA] forming a soluble electrovalent compound.

14) An element from group 1[IA] which dissolves in water to give caustic potash .

15) A strong reducing agent from the elements  - sodium of group 1[IA] and fluorine of group 17[VIIA].

D)  Complete by selecting the correct term/s in each case.

1) The modern Periodic Law states that properties of elements are periodic functions of their ____(atomic mass/ molecular mass/ atomic numbers)

2) The properties which reappear at regular intervals in the periodic table are called ___. (atomic/period/ periodic properties)

3) ______ is one of the periodic properties,  periodic in nature. (electronic configuration/ atomic rady/ electron pull)

4) ______is the energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of a gaseous atom. ( ionization potential /electron affinity)

5) The unit of ionisation potential is _____(mV/eV/iV)

6) _____ is the amount of energy released when an atom in the gaseous state accepts an electron to form an anion. (Ionisation potential/ electronegativity/ electron affinity)

7) Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract ____to itself when combined in a compound.  (protons/electrons/ ions)

8) If the electronegativity difference between two combining atoms is small the bond between them is____(electrovalent/covalent/ co-ordinate covalent)

9) An element is said to be a _____if it is loses one or more electrons when supplied with energy.  (non metal/metal/metalloid)

10) The unit of atomic radii is _____(°C/ A°/ eV)

11) A _____ is formed from a metal by loss of electrons ( anions/cation/proton )

12) Electron affinity of an atom is expressed in ____(A°/ eV/mV)

13) An element 'X' gains an electron when supplied with energy. The electronic configuration of X is _____(2, 8/2, 8, 1/2, 8,7)

14) Greater the tendency to lose electron/s the ____ the reactivity of the metal.   (greater/ lesser)

15) In the same period or sub-group , increase or decrease in a particular [periodic] property is due to gradual charge in _____(atomic weight /atomic size/ electronic configuration) in the arranged elements.

E) Select the correct elements in each case.

1) Select the elements with the largest atomii radii-- C, Be, N, F, Li

2) Select the element with the smallest atomic radii -- F, Ne, O

3) Select the element which has a higher electronegativity -- N, F, Cl

4) Select the element which has zero electron affinity-- C, Li, O, Ne.

5) Select the elements which show metallic character-- Na, Al, Si, P

6) Select the elements which show non metallic character-- Be, C, Li, Cl

7) Select the elements which show metalloid character-- Be, B, C, N, F, Si

8) Select the elements which have three electron shells -- Li, B, Al, S

9, Select the element which has the common valency 3 -- Li, Be, B, C, Al

10) Select the elements having the least electronegativity-- F, Cl, Br

11) Select the element having the smallest atomic size -- F, Cl, Br

12) Select the element having the largest atomic radii - N, P, As

13) Select two elements whose electronegativity difference is large-- Na, C, Cl

14) Select two elements whose electronegativity is almost the same-- Li, F, Na, Ne

15) Select the element with the least electron affinity-- O, C, Ne, F

16) Select the element with the highest ionisation potential-- O, F, Ne

 

F) Arrange the following elements of different periods-  as per the guidelines given below :

Elements: C   O  N  Li  F   Ne  B  Be

Elements:Mg Si S  Al  Cl  Na Ar  P

1) According to they- decreasing atomic Radii 

2) According to their - decreasing ionisation potential.

3) According to their increasing electronegativity.

4) According to their increasing electron affinity.

5) According to their metallic, non metallic and noble gas character.

G) Arrange the following elements of different groups- as per the guidelines given below:

A           B

Na       Br

K          F

Li        Cl

1) According to their - decreasing atomic Radii.

2) According to their - increasing electronegativity

3) According to their -- decreasing ionisation potential.

H) Match the Columns 

Column I 

The factors which affect the

a) Atomic size - down a group

b) Ionisation potential - down a group

c) Electron affinity- down a group 

d) Metallic character - down a group

Column II 

p) number of shells, nuclear charge nuclear

q) nuclear charge, atomic radii

r) number of shell , nuclear charge 

s) Ionization potential, electron affinity 

I) Select the correct reason for each of the statements given below-  from the choice of reasons A and B 

1) Characteristic properties occur at definite interval in the Modern Periodic Table 

A: The definite intervals are after differences of either 1 or 8 or 16 or 32 in atomic numbers .

B: The definite intervals are after difference of either 2 or 8 or 18 or 32 in atomic number.

2) Flulorine in group 17[VIIA] has a smaller atomic size than neon in group 18[0].
A: Outer shell in neon is completely filled, resulting in a form of repulsion .

B: Nuclear charge in fluorine atom is more than in the neon atom.

3) First ionisation potential of an atom is less than the second ionization potential.

A: Energy required to remove 1st electron is more than that required to remove 2nd electron.

B:  Energy required to remove 1st electron is less than that required to remove 2nd electron.

4) Electron affinity of group 18[0] elements is zero.

A:  Elements with stable electronic configuration find it difficult to accept electron.

B: Elements with stable electronic configuration find it difficult to lose electrons.

5) Elements with high electronegativity are usually non-metallic.

A: Non-metallic elements tend to gain electrons when supplied with energy.

B: Non-metallic elements tend to lose electrons when supplied with energy.

6) Down a group, metallic character increases since ionisation potential decreases.

A:  Nuclear attraction for valence electrorn decreases and electrons are loosely held.

B: Nuclear attraction for valence electrons increases and electrons are strongly held.

J) Complete by choosing the correct words -- from the list

( decrease / increases/ remain the same)

1) Across- a period in a Periodic Table 

a) ionization potential

b) electron affinity 

c) electronegativity 

d) non metallic character

e) density and melting point 

f) acidic nature of oxy-acida

2) Down-  a group in a Periodic Table 

a) ionization potential

b) electron affinity 

c) electronegativity 

d) non metallic character 

e) density melting point 

f) acidic nature of hydrides 

3) Reason for increase or decrease in periodic properties:

Across - a period in a periodic table

a) Atomic size___ because nuclear charge___number of shells___..

b) Ionization potential____because nuclear charge___, atmic radii___.

c) Non-metallic character____ because ionization potential ____,atomic radii___.

d) Electron affinity___ because, nuclear charge___, atomic radii ____.

e) Electronegativity___ because, atomic radii ___, nuclear charge ___.
f) Metallic character____ because, ionization potential___,  atmic radii____.

4) Down- a group in a Periodic Table

a) atomic size___ because the number of shells___nuclear charge___

b) ionization potential____ because atomic radii ____nuclear charge____.

c) nonmetallic character____because ionization potential___, atomic radii ____.

d) Electron affinity____ because, atomic radii ___,nuclear charge____.

e) Electronegativity ____because, nuclear charge____, atomic radii ___.

f) Metallic character___ because, atomic radii ____, ionization potential ____.

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 

PART -2

A) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The gland which is exocrine as well as endocrine nature.

2) A condition caused due to over secretion of thyroxine.

3) The hormone that controls the basal metabolic rate.

4) The endocrine gland which is referred to as the gland of emergency.

5) The gland referred to as Master gland.

6) The structure which controls the Master gland gland.

7) The gland that regulates calcium level in blood.

8) The gland that secretes insulin

9) The hormone which helps in the secretion of milk and contraction of uterine muscle.

10) The condition which results in abnormally long bones, long lower jaw bone due to hyposecretion of pituitary hormone.

B) FILL IN THE BLANKS::

1) Control and coordination of various activities of body takes place due to ___(nervous system/ endocrine system/ nervous and endocrine system).

2) hormones are called____ (information molecule/ biocatalyst/ catalyst).

3) Glucagon is secreted by__ (alpha-cella/beta-cells/delta- cells) of pancreas.

4) Deficiency of insulin results in diabetes ___ (mellitus/insipidus/ hirsutus).

5) Malfunctioning of thyroid gland in infants causes_____ (cretinism/myxoedema/Goitre).

C) T/F. Correct if False.

1) Hormones are produced by exocrine glande.

2) hormones can be proteins, amino acids and steroids.

3) mineralcorticoids regulate the metabolism of Carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

4) glucagon converts glucose to glycogen.

5) malfunctioning of thyroid in infants results in Myxoedema.

6) Oxytocin is water-retaining hormone.

7) progesterone regulates mensuration and prepares uterus to receive the fertilized egg.

D) MATCH THE FOLLOWING::

a) Hormone

b) adrenal

c) pancreas 

d) insulin

e) diabetes mellitus 

f) Pituitary

g) goitre

h) Oxytocin 

I) Gignatism

j) Cretinism

----

i) underactivity of thyroid

ii) lowers blood glucose level

iii) master gland

iv) to stimulate 

v) birth hormone

vi) malfunctioning of Thyroid in infants

vii) both endocrine and exocrine

viii) hypersecretion of growth hormone.

ix) adrenaline

x) glucose excreted in urine

E) CHOOSE THE MOST appropriate:

1) secretion of endocrine glands are called:

a) hormones b) enzymes

c) nucleic acids. d) amino acids

2) which of the following is not a hormone ?

a) insulin  b) Oxytocin

c) glucagon d) glucose 

3) master gland of human body is:

a) pancreas.   b) liver 

c) pituitary.     d) thyroid 

4) Gignatism and acromegaly are due to:

a) hyposecretion of thyroxine

b) hyposecretion of growth hormone 

c) hypersecretion of thyroxine

d) hypersecretion of growth hormone

5) ACTH is secreted by:

a) adrenal.    b) Pituitary

c) pancreas  d) thyroid 

6) Pituitary gland regulates the urine formation through:

a) oxytocin.  B) TSH

c) ACTH        D) ADH 

7) contraction of uterus during childbirth is caused by:

a) TSH.    b) Oxytocin 

c) FSH    d) glucagon 

8) which of the following is not endocrine gland?

a) pancreas b) pituitary

c) salivary gland. d) adrenal

9) Flight or Fight hormones are:

a) adrenaline and noradrenaline

b) insulin and glucagon

c) thyroxine and calcitonin 

d) oestrogen and progesterone

10) development of secondary sexual characters in human males is promoted by :

a) oestrogen b) testosterone

c) ADH           d) ACTH 

F) FIND THE ODD ONE OUT:

1) thyroid, Pituitary, liver, adrenal

2) glucagon,adrenaline,urea, insulin 

3) growth hormone, TSH, ACTH, progesterone.

4) cretinism, Goitre, myxoedema, Gignatism.

5) aldosterone, insulin, adrenaline, noradrenaline.

G) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN:

1) diabetes insipidus/Diabetes mellitus.

2) cretinism/Myxoedema

3) Gignatism/acromegaly

4) enzyme/hormone.

H) RESON BEHIND:

1) Goitre is usually observed in people living in Hilly regions.

2) some ladies develop beard, moustache and masculine voice.

3) mouth dries up and Heartbeat increases during public speaking.

4) our hair stand on their ends in fear.

5) milk is secreted from the breast of the mother during sucking by the Infant.

 

NERVOUS SYSTEM 

1) Fill in the blanks 

a) The association of two nerves is called ____.   (synapse/neurone)

b) ____ enables us to see in dim light.     (cones/rods)

c) The cones are sensitive to ___light.      (dum/bright)

d)  The atomic nervous system consists of ____and____.    (Ganglia/Dendrite/nerves).

e) The spinal cord is the centre of ____action.      (reflex /auditory)

f) The central nervous system consists of____ and____.     (brain/spinal cord/nerve)

g) The other name of tear gland is ____gland.      (Lacrimal/sweat)

h) The autonomous nervous system is made up of the____and____ nervous system.      (Sympathetic /automatic/parasympathetic)

i) The ____ are concerned with maintaining body balance.      (Auditory canals/semicircular canals)

j) The part of the brain concerned with balance is_____.      (Cerebrum /cerebellum)

k) In all there are _____pairs of cranial nerves and ____pairs of spinal nerves in humans.             (12/22/31)

l) The middle ear is filled with _____.         (air/ water /gas)

m) Our tongue can perceive____.     (Four basic tastes/eight basic testes)

n) Largest region of the brain is_____.  (Cerebellum/cerebrum)

o) Semicircular canal, utriculus and saccules of internal ear are concerned with ____.          (balance/hearing /both balance and hearing)

p) white matter mainly consist of_____.    Axons /dendrites)

q) Dilation of blood vessels and slowing of the heart beat is caused through____.   (Sympathetic /parasympathetic)

r) The seat of memory and intelligence in human brain is ____.     (Cerebrum/ cerebellum)

s) The part of the eye responsible for change in the size of the pupil is the _____.  (Iris/lens)

t) Region of the eye where the rods and cones are located in the ____.     (Retina/ cornea/ choroid)

2) Fill in the blanks From the given 

( Air, concave, incus, stapes, vitreous humour, iris, malleus, neuron, spinal bulb, eye, acetylcholine, sympathin)

a) The three soft bones present in the ear are ____, ____,  and stapes.

b) Tympanic chamber is filled with_____.

c) The midulla oblongota is also known as the _'''.

d) The space between the retina and lens filled with ___'.

e) In the eye, the colour of the___ viries from race to race.

f) The synthetic nerve ending release a hormone called ______ parasympathetic nerve secretes____.

g) yellow spot and cyliary muscles message are found in ___'.

h) The ypear ossicle in contract with the oval window of the inner ear is the ____.

i) The type of the lens used to correct myopia is____.

j) The basic unit of the human brain is the ____.

3) Fill in the blanks:

a) Ear wax is secreted by ___glands.

b) The forebrain consists of ____'and______.

c) ____ , _____ and ______are the three layers of the eye.

d) The shape of the lens can be altered by the contraction and relaxation of the ____

e) The aqueous humour and vitreous humour are the solution of _____, ____ and _____  in water.

a) ceruminous b) cerebrum, diencephalon c) scleroid, choroid, retina d) ciliary muscles, salt, sugar, proteins 

4) Given below is an example of a certain structure and ats special functional activity.

For example ---> kidney and excreation 

a) Meninges and _____'

b) cerebellum and ______

c) Myelin sheath and _____.

d) Organ of Corti and _____.

e) Yellow spot and ____(location)_____( function)

f) _____(structural )______(location) function, insulates the axon.

g) Eye: Optic nerve --- Ear : _____

h) Ureter: Carrying urine --- Eustachian tube: ____

i) Iris of the eye and ______

j) Eustachian tube and ____''_

5) Name the following:

1) Most important part of the nervous system.

2) Two types of the peripheral nerves 

3) Structural and functional units of the nervous system.

4) Long thread like part of the north cell.

5) The point on the retina through which the optic nerve comes out of the eye ball, lacks rod and cone cells 

OR

Place of no vision in the retina of the eye.

6) The point in the centre of the retina where the rod and cone cells are highly concentrated.

OR

 The most sensitive region of the retina 

OR

Place of best vision in the retina of the eye.

7) The nerve that carries the impulses from the brain to the various tissues.

8) The type of nerves which conduct the impulses from various organs to the central nervous system.

9) An enzyme present in tears .

10) The cytoplasmic processes of the cell body of a neurone.

11) A collection of several neurons.

OR

A bundle of axons enclosed in a tabular sheath.

12) A neurotransmitter stored at the terminal end of the axon.

13)  Central part of the membranous labyrinth which is divisible into two chambers-- utricle and saccule.

OR

The part of the ear which helps in hearing 

14) Three layers of the eyeball.

15) Defect of vision in which distant objects are not seen clearly.

16) Defect of vision in which nearby objects are not seen clearly.

17) Watery fluid filled in the space between the cornea and the lens.

18) Three divisions of human brain.

19) The part of the brain concerned with the regulation of skeletal muscular activities and postural mechanism.

20) the bony socket and which eye is well protected.

21) The middle pigmented layer of the wall of eyeball containing a networks of blood vessels.

22) The tissue that connect two cerebral hemispheres .

23) Response to a stimulus without the intervention of the will of the will of an animal.

24) The brain and spinal cord together.

25) The structure present in the hindbrain.

26) Two types of matter present in brain and spinal cord.

27) The smallest bone in the body.

28) The receptor which help in the sensation iofntaste.

29) The structure that protects the eyeball and maintain its shape.

30) The part of the brain associated with intelligence , sight, hearing and speech.

31) The organ responsible for reflex action.

32) The sensory cells which are sensitive to shades of grey.

33) The nerves which conduct impulse from receptor organs to the central nervous system.

34) The system termed by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.

35) The defect of human eye caused due to the uneven surface of the cornea.

36) The type of lens used for correcting mayopia 

OR

The kind of lens required to correct nearsightness.

37) The structure that has a sensory organ called organ of Corti.

38) The organ concerned with hearing and maintenance of body equilibrium .

39) One Substance that increases the rate of the heartbeat.

40) The outer layer of the brain.

41) Adjustment of the eye in order to obtain a clear vision of objects at different distances.

42) The part of the human being which controls body temperature.

43) The exposed transparent part of the eyeball.

44) Kind of retinal cells sensitive to dim light.

45) The fibres which collectively hold the lens in position.

46) The number of spinal nerves in man.

47) Lower part of the brain which contains reflex centre like cardiac centre , respiratory and vasomotor centre.

48) Wave of electrical disturbance that sweeps over the nerve cell.

49) The kind of nerve carrying impulses from the brain to the gland are muscles.

50) A small opening in the centre of the iris.

OR

 The part of the human eye which controls the amount of light entering it.

OR

The aparture through which the light rays enter the eye.

51) The receptor cells which are sensitive to different colours.

OR

  The cells of retina which differentiate colours.

OR

The cells of retina that are sensitive to colours .

52) The layers protecting the brain.

OR

The membranes covering the brain and the spinal cord 

OR

protecting covering of the brain.

53) The photosensitive pigment present in the rod cells in the retina.

54) The liquid which protects the brain from shock .

OR

The fluid with which the Central canal of the spinal cord is filled .

OR

The fluid that is present inside the outside the brain.

OR

The fluid that provides protection and nourishment to the cells of the brain.

55) The part of the eye that gives colour to the eye.

OR

 thin colour diaphragm in front of the civiliary body.

OR

the pigment circular area seen in the eye.

OR

Constriction of the pupil of the eye.

56) The white transparent part of sclera .

OR

The clear front  part of the eye.

57) The association of two nerves .

OR

The junction between two nerve cells.

OR

 The point of contact between two neurons.

58) light sensitive part of the eye.

OR

 the innermost layer of the human eye.

OR

Region in the eye where the rods and cones are located.

59) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.

60) Thick , ring-shaped structure at the junction of sclera and cornea.

OR

Helps to change the focal length of the eye lens.

61) Transfera impulses from inner ear to brain 

OR

Name the nerves which transmit impulses. from the ear to the Brain.

62) photoreceptor found in the retina of the eye.

63) Glassy jelly -like material filled in the space between the lens and the retina .

OR

Part of eye responsible for its shape.

OR

A fluid that occupies the larger cavity of the eyeball behind the lens.

64) The tube which connects the cavity of the middle ear with the throat .

65) The structure responsible for preventing the trachea from collapsing.

66) The eye defect caused due to the shortening of the eye ball from front to back.

67) Eye defect occurring in old people whereby they are unable to see near objects.

6) State the Function

a) Neurons

b) Acetylcholine 

c) Association neuron.

d)  Gypothalamus

e) Lens

f) Pupil 

g) Retina 

h) Optic nerve 

i) Rods 

j) Lacrimal glands.

k) Fovea centralis 

l) cornea

m) cornea 

n) Tears

o) Ciliary muscles 

p) Eardrum 

q) Pinnae 

r) Auditory nerve 

s) Octocenia or otolith

t) cochlea 

u) Semicircular canals

v) Wax in outer ear 

w) Cerebrospinal fluid 

x) Medullary sheath 

y) Ear ossicles 

z) Iris 

a) cerebellum 

b) cerebrum .

c) Medulla oblongota 

d) Tympanum 

e) yellow spot

f) Synapse 

7) State the location 

a) Effector organs.

b) Node of Ranvier 

c) Ganglia ganglia

d) cerebellum 

e) iris 

f) Fovea centralis 

g) Ear ossicles 

h) semicircular canal 

i) organ of Corti 

j) Eustachian tube 

k) Meninges  

8) Match the Column 

Column A 

i) The blind spot 

ii) The yellow spot

iii) dendron

iv) iris 

v) acetylcholine 

vi) neuron 

Column B 

a) spinal cord 

b) nerve impulse 

c) neurotransmitter 

d) is the exact centre of the posterior portion of the retina 

e) is free of rod and cone cells

f) gives colour to eyes 

9) Short Questions 

1) What is the nature of an impulse ?

2) How is ear protected from dust and microbes ?

3) What is meant by effector organs ?

4) What is Hypermetropia and how can it be corrected ?

5) Why do you call the spinal cord and brain as the central nervous system ?

6) Which part of the ear is concerned with hearing ?

7) Which part of the brain is most important ? why ?

8) What is Rhodopsin?

9) What is meant by " binocular vision"?

10) What are the neurons ? Mention their functions.

11) 

12) Why does deficiency of vitamin A causes night blindness ?

13) What will happen if Eustachian tube is blocked ?

14) What is pons ?

15) How are the 'Cross Eyes" or squint eyes are produced ?

16) What is spinal cord and where is it located ?

17) Name the major divisions of the human nervous system.

18) Name the main components of the central nervous system.

19) State two kinds of nerve cells along with their functions.

20) What is the function of pinna in man ?

21) What is an impulse ? Explain with an example.

22) Name the coats present in the eyeball .

23) Why do older people require glasses to read and write?

24) What type vision are associated with the rods and cones ?

 

25) Define the reflex arc and state its components.

26) Where does oldactory epithelium occur ? Give its function.

27) What will happen to eyesight if optic lobes are damaged?

28) What do you mean by light adaptation ?

29) What is Cataract? .

30) What does the peripheral nervous system include ?

31) Correct the sentence if needed by changing the first or the last word :

cochlea of the human ear is concerned with the sense of balance.

32) Name the four lobes of cerebral hemisphere. 

33) Name the organ where cochlea is located and give one function.

34) Given below is a set of items belonging to a common category. Complete the set by filling in the category and the odd term.

Semicircular canals, Malleus , Cochlea, Utriculus, Saccules.

35) State two  function of the lacrimal glands.

36) Give a short explanation for the following statement.

The mouth begins to water (salivation) at the site of tasty food.

37) Explain briefly. While reading a line from a printed page you have to move your eyes from word to word.

38) Describe briefe the functions of Eustachian tube.

39) Define giving one example of each:

a)  natural reflex 

b) nerve 

40) What is reflex action ? Give two example of reflex action in our daily life.

41) State whether the following statements are true or false. If false rewrite the wrong statement in its correct form by the changing the first or last word.

a)  Hypermetropia is a defect of the eye caused due to the eyeball being alongated.

b) Cones and the receptor cells in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.

c) The part of the ear associated with balance in the cochlea.

d) Deafness is caused due to the rupturing of the pinna.

e) pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood.

f) In the human body, the longest cells are the neurons.

42) What is Myopia and how can it be corrected ?

43)  Choose the odd one.

a) myopia, hypermetropia , xerophthalmia, astigmatism 

b) pins, cerebellum, medulla oblongota, cerebrum 

c) pleura, pericardium, meninges, spinal cord 

d) corpus luteum, corpus callosum, pons, cerebellum 

e) coughing, sneezing, eating, blinking 

44) State whether the following are simple simple reflex, conditioned or neither of the two 

a) sneezing on hot weather 

b) Cough during swallowing.

c) Knitting without looking.

d) Sneezing 

e) Blushing 

f) Contraction of iris.

g)  Salivation at sight of food 

h) Sudden application of brakes without thinking.

i) lifting a book

j)  contraction of pupil 

45) Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word/s for the for 4th place.

Cones : Iodopsin :: Rods : ___

46) What do you mean by ossicles? Name them and state their functions .

47) What is Fovea or yellow spot.

48) Given below is a biological statement which is incomplete and hence in correct. Rewrite the correct form of the statement by inserting a suitable word/s at the right place. Do not delete any word already given in the statement. Underline the inserted word/s.

A reflex action is a spontaneous response to a stimulus .

49) Give one point of difference between the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in the brackets.

a) Rods and cone cells (pigment)

b) cerebrum in spinal cord (arrangement of cytons and axons of neurons)

50) What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye ? Name the muscles of the eye responsible for the same.

OR

 briefly explain the following term.  "power of accommodation of the eye"

51) State whether the following statements are true or false. if false , write the correct statement by changing the first word only.

a) Iron is the minerals element responsible for the clothing of blood.

b) cones are photoreceptors cells that are sensitive to dim light.

52) Give the exact location and one function of pinna.

53) Give the appropriate term for the following :

The region of distinct vision in the eye.

54) Arrange these terms in sequence.

a) cochlea, tympanum, pinna, auditory canal, ear ossicles .

b) Dorsal root ganglion, receptor, effector, ventral root ganglion, associated neuron.

c) yellow spot, conjuctiva, pupil , cornea, lens, vitreous humour, aqueous humour.

d) ear ossicles, oval window, tympanum, auditory canal, cochlea 

e) tissue fluid, oxygen, alvelous, blood, tissues

55) State whether the following statement is true or false. if false write the correct statement by changing the incorrect word/s only 

Rods are responsible for vision in the dark.

56) Name the organ or structure that is responsible for protecting the eye from sweat.

57) Given below is a set of terms arranged in logical sequence, representing a process of function. Of these ,one term is incorrect. Identify the incorrect term and replace it with the correct term. One has been done for you as an example.

Eg., Pollen grain --Exine----staminal tube ---- Male gametes ---- Micropyle 

Incorrect term - Staminal tube

Correct term - pollen tube 

a) pupil --- Eye lens ---- vitreous humour --- Fovea --- auditory canal 

b) sensory nerve --- dorsal root ganglion---- sensory neuron--- motor neuron--- receptor 

58) State whether the following actions are voluntary action, simple reflex or conditioned reflex:-

a)  blinking 

b) cleaning the table

c)  playing on the keyboard

d) salivation when the food is put in the mouth.

59) Given below is a set of 5 terms . Without changing the first term, rearrange the remaining four , so as to be in logical sequence as per the direction given in bracket.

Pinna , cochlea, tympanum, ear ossicles, auditory canal (route through which vibration of sound enter the ear)

59) At the start of a race, athletes react to a starter gun. This reaction involves a number of events.

a) In the boxes below, put the following events in the correct order. The first one has been done for you.

A.  coordination by brain.

B.  detection by receptors.

C. stimulus.

D.  response.

E.  effector change 

C __  ____  ____ ____

b) Write down one difference between the voluntary and reflex actions.

c)  why are reflex actions so important to living beings ?

60) Luka puts hands on a nail. He quickly moves his hand and shouts in pain 

a) What type of nervous system is involved when Luke moves his hand ?

b) Complete the following sentences with the help of words given below.

( brain, electrical, effector , motor, physical, receptor, sensory, spinal cord)

i) When Luke puts his hand on a nail, pressure is put on____

ii) Nerve impulses than travel along a____neurone.

iii) These impulses are ____.

iv) These impulses will go first to the____.

61) Write the function of the following:

a) cerebrum 

b) diencephalon 

c) midbrain 

d) Cerebellum 

e) pons

f) medula oblongota 

62) Write the difference between 

a) Rods and Cones 

  

b) blind spot and yellow spot

c) White matter and grey matter

d) Auditory nerve and Optic nerve 

in innervates the internal ear 

e) Medulla oblongota and Cerebellum

it controls activities of internal organs, heartbeat, breathing etc

      

f)  Aqueous humour and vitreous humour 

g) spinal nerves and cranial nerves

 

h) Myopia and Hypermetropia 

the image of distant object is formed in front of the retina

         

i) cerebrum  and cerebellum

j) Affarent (sensory) neurons and Efferent (motor) neurons 

k) Choroid layer and Sclerotic layer 

l) Dynamic balance and Static balance 

is the balance of the body during movement or locomotion

63) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 

1) The jordsal root ganglion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies of:

a) motor neuron 

b) sensory neurons

c) intermediate neurons

d) none

2)  The adjustment of the eye in a normal person to view near and distant objects :

a) accommodation b) Myopia c) refraction d) astigmatism 

3) The condition in which light rays from a distant object are brought into focus in front of the retina:

a) astigmatism  b) Myopia c) accomodation d) refraction 

4) Which part of the ear passes sound waves from the outer to the inner ear?

a) Eustachian tube b) ear drum c) oval window  d) pinna 

5) Which one of these receptors in man is stimulated by sound waves ?

a) utriculus b) organ of Corti c) semicircular canals d) sacculus 

6) Mayopia (short-sightedness) is a defect in human eyes in which image formed:

a) in front of retina and can be corrected by using a concave lens.

b) In front of retina and can be corrected by using a convex lens.

c)  behind retina and can be corrected by using a concave lens.

d) behind retina and can be corrected by using a convex lens.

7) To view distinct objects the lens of the eye becomes :

a) more convex

b) less convex 

c) more concave

d) less concave 

8) Function of iris is to:

a) move the lens.

b) after the diameter of the pupil

c) close the eyelid

d) secretes aqueous humour 

9) Blind spot in an eye is located:

a) in Fovea centralis 

b) in middle of the lens

c) where optic nerve leaves the retina.

d) in centre of the pupil

10) The parts of the human ear concerned with hearing :

a) cochlea ear ossicles and tympanum 

b) semicircular canals, utriculus and saccules 

c) Eustachian tube, tympanum and utriculus 

d) perilymph, ear ossicles and semicircular canals.

11) In mammals, the corpus callosum connects:

a) the two optic lobes

b) the two cerebral hemispheres 

c) the cerebrum to the cerebellum 

d) the pons to the medulla oblongata 

12) Cerebellum is the part of the brain which is responsible for:

a) interpreting sensations 

b) conducting reflexes in the body

c) maintaining posture and equilibrium

d) controlling thinking, memory and reasoning.

13) Which of the following is not involved in the knee-jerk reflex ?

a) spinal cord  b) Motor neuron c) connecting neuron d) sensory neuron

14) Which of the following is not an effect of the sympathetic nervous system ?

a) increased heart rate 

b) reduction of blood supply to the skin

c) increased paristalsis

d)  dilation of the pupil

QUESTION BASED ON DIAGRAMS 

1) Figure Represents a point at which one neuron meets another 

a) What is the type of function called ?

b) What is contained in the vesicle?

c) Explain how a nerve impulse in A is transmitted to neuron B.

2) The following diagram represents a certain defect of vision of the human eye.

a) Name the defect.

b) Describe briefly the condition in the eye responsible for the defect.

c) Redraw the figure by adding a suitable lens correcting the defect. Label the part through which the light rays pass.

d) What special advantage do human beings derive in having both eyes facing forward?

3) Observe the diagram given below:

a) Label the parts 1- 8.

b) What are the function of parts labelled 1, 3 and 5 ?

c) What is the function of the neuron?

d) What is the name given to the tissue where the cell bodies of neurons are located ?

4) The following diagram represents a section of a mammalian eye.

a) name the part 1 to 12.

b) what structures in the eye are mainly responsible for:

     i) the alteration of the shape of the lens ?

    ii) the constriction of the pupil in bright light.

    iii) the best perception of image ?

    iv) the perception of light ?

    v) the transmission of nerve impulse from eye to the brain ?

c) Name any two common defects of vision in man and their causes.

5) The following diagram represents the parts of the human ear.

a) Name the parts labelled 1 to 8

b) What is function of the parts marked 2 and 7 ?

c) Why is it harmful to use a pin or any sharp object to remove the wax from the ear ?

6) Draw a diagram of the human eye as seen in a vertical section and label the part which suits the following functions/descriptions:

a) The layer which prevents reflection of light.

b) The structure that alters the focal length of the lens.

c) The region of distinct vision.

d) The part which transmits the impulse to the brain.

e) The outermost transparent layer in front of the eye lens.

f) The fluid present in the anterior part of the eye in front of the eye lens .

7) The diagram given below depicts the cross section of the spinal cord.

Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a)  Name the process that is being depicted.

b) Name the parts labelled 2, 5 and 6.

c) Name the cells in contact with the part labelled 1.

d) What is the function of the parta labelled 3, 4 and 7 ? What is the technical term given to the pathway represent by 3, 4 and 7 ?

e) How does the arrangement of cells in the spinal cord differ from that in the brain?

8) The following diagram shows a human brain. Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate different parts of the surface of the brain and these are as follows:

1. Frontal lobe of cerebrum,

2. Temporal lobe of cerebrum,

3. Occipital lobe of cerebellum,

4. Cerebellum , and 

5. Medulla oblongota 

Study the diagram and answer the following questions:

a) What handicaps would result from:

     i) damage to part numbered 3 ?

    ii) damage to part numbered 4 ?

    iii) Mention one function of each of the parts of numbered 1, 2 and 5.

9) Given below is the diagram of human ear,

study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) What role does the ear from play in hearing ?

b) What common term is given to the parts labelled A, B and E ?

c) Would there be any difference if these three parts mentioned in (b) above were replaced by a big one ? Why ?

d) Give the biological term for the parts labelled C and D.

e) Name the fluid which first the parts mentioned in (d) above.

f) State the functions of the ear.

10) The diagram given below represents a defect of vision of the human eye:

a) Name the defect .

b) What is the effect of this defect of man ?

c) Mention two causes of this defect.

d) How can this defect be rectified ?

e) Draw a neat labelled diagram to show how this defect can be rectified.

f) What is the nature of the image that falls on the retina of a normal eye ?

11) The following diagram refers to ear of a mammal.

a) Label the parts 1 to 10 to which the guidelines point .

b) Which structure:

   i) converts sound waves into mechanical vibrations?

  ii) converts vibrations into nerve impulses ?

 iii) respond to change in position ?

  iv) transmits impulses to the Brain ?

 v) equalises atmospheric pressure and pressure in the ear ?

12) The diagram given below shows the internal structure of the spinal cord, depicting a simple reflex. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the parts numbered 1 to 5.

b) Using the letters of the alphabet shown in the figure, indicate the direction in which an impulse entres and leaves the spinal cord.

c) What is the term given to the point of contact between two nerve cells?

d) What is meant by 'simplex reflex '? 

    Give two examples of simple reflexes , and name the stimuli too.

e) How does the arrangement of nerve cells in the spinal cord differ from that in the brain ?

 

13) The following diagram represents the human brain at seen in an external view. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3, 4.

b) Mention the difference in the arrangement of the nerve cells in the parts marked 1 and 4.

c) What are the main functions of the parts 3 and 4 ?

d) Name the sheet of nerve fibres that connect the two halves of the part labelled 1?

14) Given below is the diagram of a part of the human ear.

Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) Give the biological term for malleus, incus and stapes.

b)  Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram.

c) State the Functions of the parts labelled A and B.

d) Name the audio receptor region present in the part labelled A .

15) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye.

Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the defect shown in the diagram.

b) Give two possible reasons for this defect of the eye in human beings.

c) Name the parts labelled 1 to 4.

d) Name the type of lens used to correct this eye defect.

e)  Draw a labelled diagram to show how the above mentioned defect is rectified using the lens named above .

16) Draw a labelled diagram of the inner ear. Name the part of the inner ear that is responsible for static balance in human beings.

17) a) Draw a labelled diagram of a myelinated neuron.

b) Explain the difference between a sensory nerve and a motor nerve.

18) The diagram given below is the external view of the human brain.

Study the same and answer the questions that follow :

a) Name the parts level 1, 2 and 3.

b) State the main functions of the parts labelled 1 to 2.

c) How are the brain cells arranged in the part labelled 1 ?

d) What is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system ?

e) Name the fluid that surrounds the brain. State its function.

19) Given below is a diagram of the human ear .

Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

a) Give the biological term for they part labelled A and state its function.

b) Name the part labelled B and state its function.

c) Name the part labelled C and state it function.

d) Give the function of ear wax.

20) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a defect of the human eye:

a) identify the defect.

b) mention two reasons for the above defect .

c) State how the defect can be rectified.

d) Name the part of the eye responsible for maintaining the shape of the eyeball.

THE EXCRETORY SYSTEM 

1) Name the following 

a) Process of control of water content and concentration of ions in the body.

b) The process of removal of toxic wastes from the body of an organism.

c) The organ where urea is produced.

d) The functional units of kidney.

e) The terms used for Bowman's capsule and glomerulus together .

f) The inner concave margin of kidney.

g) The term used for tea, coffee and beverages which increases urine formation.

2)  Mention whether the following statements are true(T) or false(F):

a)  Water is absorbed through active transportation.

b) Right kidney is a placed slightly higher than left kidney.

c) Network of capillaries inside the glomerulus is called Bowman's capsule.

d) Concentration of Sodium, potassium Chloride, bicarbonate are regulated by DCT of Henle's loop.

e) Bowman's capsule is present in the medulla.

f) The sphincter muscles around the urethra act voluntarily.

3)  Fill in the blanks to make a meaningful description:

 The Bowman's capsule contains a ball of finely divided and interwind ____. Which are formed by the repeated branching of the____. These structures are called ____. The Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus together are called____ or____.  The blood capillaries bring _____ and excess____ from body to the kidneys.

4) Match the Column 

Column A

a) lungs 

b) skin 

c) kidney

d) liver 

Column B 

i) Excreation of Urea, salt and excess water.

ii) Excretory liquid wastes such as urine.

iii) Excretion of carbon dioxide and water vapour.

iv) Removing urea, bile pigment and toxins.

5) Define the following

a) Excretion 

b) Homeostasis 

c) Affarent arteriole 

d) Efferent arteriole 

e) Glomerulus 

f) Bowman's capsule 

g) Oedema 

6) Choose the correct option:

a) Which one of the following is a not an excretory activity ?

i) removal of carbon dioxide 

ii) removal of facial matter 

iii) removal of sweat due to perspiration

iv) removal of urea 

b) Which of the following is formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin ?

a) carbon dioxide 

b) Ammonia 

c) bile pigments

d) uric acid

c) Urine is collected and stored in the:

i) ureter ii) kidney iii) urethra iv) urinary bladder 

d) Dialysis machine is a:

i) real machine 

ii) artificial machine 

iii) machine to lead a healthy life

iv) machine to obstruct urine flow

e) Urine contains:

i) water nitrogenous substances

ii) water and ammonia only

iii) oil and nitrogenous substances 

iv) all proteinaceous substances

f) Active transport moves molecules from blood to the distal convoluted tubele during:

i) tubular reabsorption 

ii) Tubular secretion 

iii) selective reabsorption 

iv) ultrafiltration 

g) Sodium reabsorption occurs in kidney tubules under the influence of 

i) amount of sodium in the blood

ii)  amount of sodium in the urine

iii) The hormone renin

iv) ADH( Antidiuretic hormone)

h) osmoregulation is brought about by:

i) liver ii) kidney iii) lungs  iv) skin 

7) Differentiate between the following pairs of terms giving any two striking differences 

a) Bowman's capsule/ Malpighian corpuscle 

b) Excretion/ osmoregulation

c)  renal cortex / Renal medulla 

d) urea/urine 

e) renal corpuscle/ renal tubule

8) What is Henle's loop 

9) What will happen if one kidney is damaged ?

10) List the excretory organs in human.

11) Why must all living things excrete ?

12) What are the chief Excretory products in human ?

13) What is artificial kidney ? How is it useful ?

14) Why does the urine becomes slightly more concentrated in summer than winter?

15) How does the liver act as an excretory organ ?

16) What is the urinary ferrous tubule ? how does it function  ?

17) Write short notes on :

a) Pulmonary excreation 

b) Cutaneous excreation by the skin 

18) Define the following terms:

a) ultrafiltration

b) reabsorption

19) What is dialysis ? Under what condition it is carried out ?

20) How does skin function as a protective and as an Excretory organ?

21) Write the main nitrogenous metabolic waste created out in mammals ?

22) Explain the following:

a) In summer season, less quantity of urine is produced than in winter. Give reason.

b) The elimination of water by the kidney machine may be considered to be both excretion and osmoregulation. Explain.

23) The figure alongside shows the cross section of a kidney:

a) Label the parts on it.

i) cortex ii) medulla iii) pelvis iv) Ureter v) pyramid vi) papilla 

b) Differentiate between pelvis and papilla

24) Given below is the ultrastructure of a nephron.

Label the merked parts 

25) Label the diagram drawn below.

What is the diagram representing ?

26) Draw a neat and simple diagram of a human kidney and label its important parts.

27) Draw the Excretory system of human and label all its parts. Also indicate the inflowing and outflowing blood vessel by labelling them correctly.

28) Study the diagram given below and then answer the question that follow:

a) Name the region in the kidney where the above structure is present.

b) Name the parts labelled 1,2,3,4.

c) Name the stages involved in the formation of urine.

d) what is the technical term given to the process occurring in 2 and 3? Briefly describe the process

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE(1)

A) Answer the following:

1) Why is Hydrogen chloride not collected over water ?

2) Choose the letter A, B C or D to match the description given below:

A) Ammonia 

B) Hydrogen chloride

C) Hydrogen sulphide

D) Sulphur dioxide

This has gives a white precipitate when reacted with silver nitrate solution acidified with dilute nitric scid.

3) A colourless gas (G) is passed through a solution of silver nitrate, when a curdy white precipitate (P) is formed. The precipitate is insoluble in di. Nitric acid but soluble in Ammonia solution. Name G and P.

4) Why does hydrogen chloride fume in moist air ?

5) Hydrochloric acid is not very expensive. give reason.

6) Why is high temperature is avoided in the preparation of hydrogen chloride from sodium sulphate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

7) Conc. nitric acid is not used for the preparation of HCl. Why ?

8) Explain why the following statement is not correct ?

"Lead chloride can be prepared by adding dilute hydrochloric acid to lead sulphate solution.

9) From the following list of substances: ammonium chloride, ammonium nitrate, chlorine, dilute hydrochloric acid, iron, lead nitrate, manganese (IV) oxide, silver nitrate, sodium nitrate, Sodium and nitrite and sulphur-

 Choose those which meet the description given below:

 Two compounds whose aqueous solutions give white percipitate with dilute hydrochloric acid.

10) State what is observed when hydrochloric acid is added to Silver nitrate solution.

11) What do you observe when concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to lead (IV) oxide with the warming ?

12) What would you see when hydrogen chloride is mixed with Ammonia ?

13) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution.

14) Write balanced equation for the following reaction:

Red lead (trilead tetroxide) is warmed with concentrated hydrochloric acid.

15) Write balance chemical equation for the following reaction:

Zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

16) Select from the list given below (A to F), the one substance which matches the given description.

A.  Ammonia 

B. Copper oxide 

C. Copper sulphate 

D. hydrogen chloride 

E. hydrogen sulphide 

F. lead bromide

 This compound can be oxidised to chlorine.

17) Write a balanced equation for the following reaction:

 Sodium chloride from sodium carbonate solution and dilute hydrochloric acid.

F) COMPLETE AND BALANCE THE EQUATION: 

1) Pb₃O₄+ + 8HCl(con) --> 3PbCl₂

2) Zn+ 2HCl(dil)----->ZnCl₂

3) KCl + H₂SO₄(ᶜᵒⁿᶜ) -> .... + .....

4) Cu + HCl(dil) --> .... + ......

5) Cuo + HCl(dil) ---> ..... + .....

6) Cuo +[O]+ HCl(conc) --> 

             ...+ .... + ......

7) K₂O + HCl(dil) -> .... + .......

8) HCl <⁵⁰⁰ᶜ=> ...... + .......

9) HNO₃(conc)+ HCl(conc) -----> 

         ........ + ........ + ........

10) Pb(NO₃O)₂ + 2HCl(dil) --> ...

11) MnO₂(aq) + HCl --> ...+ ...+ ....

12) KMnO₄+ HCl(conc) --> 

          .....+ ..... + 8H₂O + Cl₂

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING :

1) Products obtained by passing Chlorine and sulphur dioxide together through water.

2) Drying agent which is used to dry Hydrogen chloride.

3) A gas Which yields dense white fumes when treated with Hydrogen chloride.

4) The gas obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid. 

5) The gas obtained by treating ferrous sulphide with Hydrochloric acid.

6) Covalent compound Which becomes electrovalent when dissolved in water.

7) The anion present in the following: when compound A is warmed with Conc. Sulphuric acid gives a gas Which fumes in moist air and gives dense white fumes with Ammonia.

8) The lead compound that can be used to oxidise Hydrogen chloride to chlorine.

9) A solution which gives Chlorine on oxidation.

10) A substance that turns moist starch iodide paper blue.

D) T/F. CORRECT IF IT IS FALSE :

1) Hydrochloric acid is found in the stomach of mammals.    

2) Hydrogen chloride gas is obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

3) When moist blue litmus paper is introduced into a jar of HCL, it turns red.

4) HCL gas is not combustible but it supports combustion.

5) HCL gas partially ionized in an aqueous solution.

6) HCL acid is not used to remove rust from iron sheets.

7) HCL acid gives brown fumes of ammonium chloride with Ammonia.

8) In the laboratory, HCL gas is collected by downward displacement of air.

9) HCL gas is a colourless odourless and tasteless gas.

10) HCL gas is insoluble in water.

Each Questions carries 2 marks 

1) Identify the substances describe below.

a) Colourless liquid used for the preparation of aqua -regia; turns wet blue litmus red; reacts with silver nitrate solution forming a dense white precipitate .

b) Greenish yellow gas which combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen chloride gas.

2) How would you represent Hydrogen chloride and Hydrochloric acid by chemical formula? Why do they differ ?

3) What must be added to sodium chloride to obtain hydrogen chloride? 

b) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place above.

4) Select from the list below, the gas which matches the description given and answer the questions that follow:

       Ammonia, chlorine, HCL, Sulphur dioxide.

When gas C is mixed with gas B ( which turns moist red litmus to blue). dense white fumes are seen and there is no other product.

a) What is the name of gas B and gas C ?

b) What is the name of the product of the reaction between gas B and gas C ?

5) Manganese(IV) oxide, lead(IV) oxide and red lead (Pb₃O₄) react with concentrated hydrochloric acid liberating chlorine.

a) What is the common property being by these metal oxides ?

b) Write the equation for the reaction of concentratated Hydrochloric acid with Pb₃O₄. 

6) Write the observation and balanced equations for the following reactions:

Excess of ammonia hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by adding hydrochloride acid in silver nitrate solution.

7) Salts A and E undergo reaction (a) and (b) respectively. Identify the anion present in these salts on the basis of these reactions.

a) When Silver Nitrate solution is added to a solution of A, a white precipitate insoluble in dilute nitric acid, is formed.

b) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to E produced an effervescence. The gas produced turns lime water milky but does not affect acidified potassium dichromate solution.

8) The following series of reactions is carried out:

a) HCL is passed into cold water.

b) Ammonia is passed into the resulting solution.

c) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to the product of (b) and solution in the warmed.

c) Silver nitrate is added to the solution resulting from (c) (Assume that the sodium hydroxide is not in excess)

 Answer the question (i), (ii), (III) and about steps and respectively name (iv) about steps (a),(b), (c) and (d) respectively.

i) 1. Name the product.

    2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

ii) 1. Name the product.

     2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

iii) 1. Name the products.

      2. Which of the product/s is/are covalent?

      3. Write the equation for the reaction.

iv) 1. What would you see ?

      2. Write the equation for the reaction.

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE (2)

1) The gastric juice secreted by the walls of the stomach contains:

a) sulphuric acid  b) hydrochloric acid c) nitric acid  d) acetic acid

2) When the equal volumes of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are exposed to diffuse sunlight, the reaction:

a) does not takes place  b) takes place at at moderate speed c) is explosive in nature d) none

3) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt the acid used is:

a) dilute sulphuric acid b) glacial Acetic acid c) conc. sulphuric acid d) carbonic acid

4) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory, the reaction mixture should be:

a) kept below 10°C b) kept below 200°C c) kept above 200°C d) any of these 

5) The drying agent used in the laboratory the preparation of dry HCL gas is:

a) Phosphorus pentoxide  b) anhydrous calcium sulphate  c) calcium oxide  d) conc. sulphuric acid

6) The salt formed when sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid are heated below 200°C is :

a) sodium hydrogen sulphate  b) sodium sulphate c) sodium bisulphate d) either a or c

7) In order to find that a given jar is filled with HCl gas, a glass rod dipped in ____ solution is held near its mouth.

a) ammonia  b) caustic soda c) caustic potash d) barium chloride

8) Hydrogen chloride gas is collected :

a) by the upward displacement of air  b) downward displacement of air c) downward displacement of water  d) over the mercury 

9) HCL gas extremely soluble in water. One volume up water at 20°C can absorb:

a) 200 volumes of HCL  b) 450 volumes of HCL c) 150 volumes of HCL d) 800 volumes of HCL 

10) HCl gas turns alkaline phenolphthalein solution from:

a) pink to green b) pink to blue c) pink to colourless d) pink to yellow 

11) The advantage of using inverted funnel for the absorption of HCl gas in water is:

a) it prevents back suction into the reaction mixture 

b) it provides large surface area of water for absorption 

c) it prevents explosion in apparatus d) both a and b

12) A non metallic hydroxide, which forms dense white fumes with HCl gas is compound of:

a) nitrogen and hydrogen  b) nitrogen and oxygen  c) nitrogen and carbon d) nitrogen and sulphur

13) A metallic carbonates react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form theit respective :

a) chlorides and water  b) chloride and carbon dioxide gas c) chlorides, water and carbon dioxide gas  d) none

14) When dilute HCl is mixed with clear solution of silver nitrate, a precipitate is formed which is:

a) yellow in colour  b) silvery in colour c) curdy white in colour d) blue in colour

15) Aqua region is a  mixture of:

a) 3 parts of conc. HCL and 1 part of conc. HNO₃

b) 1 part of conc. HCL and 3 parts of conc.HNO₃

c) equal parts of conc. HCL and conc. HNO₃ d) none

16)) Black copper(II ) oxide is placed in a beaker containing hydrochloric acid. After 1 hour the colour of reaction mixture changes to:

a) grey b) brown c) red d) blue 

17) A chemical/chemicals which can dissolve gold is:

a)! Aqua Fortis b) aqua regia c) aqua pure d) none

18) An acid commonly applied on the surface of metal before soldering or welding is:

a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) conc. nitric acidic  c) conc. acetic acid d) conc. hydrochloric acid 

19) The common name of hydrochloric acid is :

a) Marine acid b) muriatic acid c) solution of HCl d) none

20) Traces of hydrochloric acid is present in:

a) pancreatic juice  b) gastric juice  c) bile secreted by liver d) none

21) When equal volume of a mixture of hydrogen and chlorine are exposed to direct sunlight, they:

a) do not react b) react at a moderate speed c) react violently d) none

22) The acid with reacts with metallic chlorides, either without heating or with heating is:

a) conc. Nitric acid b) glacial acetic acid c) dilute sulphuric acid d) conc. Sulphuric acid 

23) conc. sulphuric acid react with the Iron (II) chloride on heating to form:

a) iron(II ) sulphate and HCL only  b) iron(II ) sulphate, water and HCL only c)  iron(III ) sulphate and HCL gas only  d) iron(III ) sulphate, water and HCL gas only 

24) concentrated or dilute sulphuric acid does not react with lead chloride, because:

a) lead is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical series

b) lead is higher than the hydrogen in electrochemical series

c)!an insoluble thin layer of lead sulphate is found over lead chloride , which cuts off chemical reaction d) none

25) In laboratory , hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating conc. H₂SO₄ with:

a) potassium chloride  b) magnesium chloride c) sodium chloride d) ammonium chloride

26) Sodium chloride is used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas because:

a) it is cheapest chemical  b) it is readily available c) it reacts readily with conc. H₂SO₄ even without heating  d) all of these 

27) The sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid mixture should not be heated beyond 200°C, because:

a)! sodium sulphate so formed fuses with glass apparatus and makes it useless 

b) rate of evolution of HCl gas is very high and hence it is difficult to collect 

c) the apparatus may crack because sodium sulphate acts as a bad conductor of heat 

d) all of these 

28) During the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt and conc. H₂SO₄,  the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, only when the temperature of mixture is:

a) 300°C b) 250°C c) 220°C d) below 200°C

29) Hydrogen chloride gas is heavier than air because its vapour density is:

a) 17.75  b) 18.25 c) 36.5 d) 22

30) 1 volume of water at room temperature will absorb :

a) 750 c.c of HCl gas b) 200 c.c of HCl gas c) 450 c.c of HCl gas d) 650 c.c of HCl gas

31) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by bubbling it through conc.H₂SO₄  because:

a) HCl gas does not react chemically with conc.H₂SO₄

b) conc. H₂SO₄ being dehydrating agent absorbs moisture present in the HCL gas

c) conc.H₂SO₄ is least volatile acid and hence it's vapours do not mix with HCl gas.

d) all of these 

32) An Alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with HCl gas is :

a) sodium hydroxide  b) potassium hydroxide solution  c) ammonium hydroxide solution  d) calcium hydroxide solution

33) When silver nitrate solution is treated with hydrochloric acid a thick curdy white precipitate of silver chloride is formed. This white precipitate dissolves in excess of:

a) sodium hydroxide solution  b) ammonium hydroxide solution c) potassium hydroxide solution d) calcium hydroxide solution 

34) When hydrochloric acid is added in lead nitrate solution, then a precipitate of lead chloride is formed which is :

a) white in colour  b) light yellow in colour  c) reddish brown in colour d) deep yellow in colour 

35) The precipitate lead chloride in question 34 (above) along with rest of the reaction mixture is boiled. It is seen 

a) percipetate changes to orange colour 

b) no changes takes in precipitate

c) precipitate redissolves and a colourless liquid is formed d) none

36) The solution of nitrate/s of a metal/s which form white precipitate with dil. HCl are:

a) Zn(NO₃)₂ sol. b) Pb(NO₃)₂ sol. c) AgNO₃ d) both b and c 

37) A salt of sodium which on boiling with conc. HCl gives reddish brown fumes of nitrogen gas is :

a) Na₂S b) NaHCO₃ c) Na₂SO₄ d) NaNO₃

38) When calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute HCl , the products formed are:

a) calcium chloride and water 

b) calcium chloride and carbon dioxide

c) calcium chloride, water and CO₂ gas 

d) calcium chloride, water and carbon monoxide gas

39) Which is not a correct statement?

When Na₂CO₃ is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid ?

a) a lot of effervescence takes place 

b) carbon dioxide gas evolved 

c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide gas evolved

d) both a and b 

40) Iron savings reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form:

a) iron(II) chloride and water b) iron(II ) chloride and hydrogen c) Iron(III ) chloride and hydrogen  d) Iron (III) chloride and water 

41) In a beaker containing dilute HCl is poured 2g of black copper oxide(II ). The beaker is left undisturbed for one hour. After this time interval the colour of reaction mixture is:

a) colourless b) light green c) blue d) yellow 

42) The products formed when magnesium sulphide is treated with dil. HCl are:

a) magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas 

b) magnesium chloride and sulphur

c) magnesium chloride and hydrogen sulphide gas d) none

43) The product formed when potassium hydroxide sulphide (KHS) is treated with dilute HCl are:

a) KCL and sulphur b)  KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, H₂S and water d) KCL and H₂S gas only

44) The products formed when potassium hydrogen sulphite[KHSO₃] is treated with dilute HCl are:

A) KCL and sulphur b) KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, SO₂ gas and water d) KCL, H₂S gas and water 

45) The products formed when zinc sulphite is treated with HCl are:

a) zinc chloride and SO₂ gas b) zinc chloride and SO₃ gas c) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur  d) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and water 

46) The products formed when sodium thiosulphate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid are:

a) sodium chloride, water and SO₂ gas

b) sodium chloride, water and sulphur

c) sodium chloride, water, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

d) sodium chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

47) When copper nitrate crystals are boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) copper(II ) chloride and water

b) copper(I ) chloride and nitric acid 

c) copper(II ) chloride and nitric acid

d) copper (II) chloride, water and nitric acid 

48) When MnO₂ boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) manganese chloride and water 

b) manganese chloride and chlorine 

c) manganese chloride, water, chlorine d) none

49) When lead dioxide is boiled with conc.HCl, the product formed are:

a)  lead (II) chloride and water

b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine

c) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine

d) lead+II ) chloride, water and chlorine 

50) When red lead oxide [Pb₃O₄] is boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine c) lead (II) chloride and water d) lead(II) chloride, water and chlorine 

51) When potassium permanganate [KMnO₄] is treated conc. HCL, the product of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and water

b) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, manganese chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

52) When potassium dichromate(K₂Cr₂O₇) is boiled with conc.HCl, the products of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and water 

b) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, chromium chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

53) Which is not a correct statement ?

Hydrochloric acid is used in:

a) the manufacture of dyes, drugs and paints

b) soldering and welding of metal 

c) food preservative industry 

d) leather industry 

54) The aim of fountain experiment is to prove:

a) HCL turns blue litmus red 

b) HCl is denser than air

c) HCl is highly soluble in water

d) HCL fumes in moist air 

1) Identify the following :

a) Name of experiment which shows that hydrogen chloride gas is extremely soluble in water.

b) A gas liberated when dilute hydrochloric acid is treated with magnesium.

c) A coloured gas which reacts with hydrogen gas to form hydrogen chloride gas.

d) A gas liberated when calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

e) A white percipitate formed when sodium chloride solution is treated with silver nitrate solution.

f) A concentrated acid (1 part) which forms aqua regia, when mixed with three parts of conc. Hydrochloric acid.

g) An element liberated when sodium thiosulphate solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

h) A salt of sodium on treating with dilute hydrochloric acid liberates Sulphur dioxide gas.

 

i) A nitrate of a metal (other than silvery nitrate), which forms while precipitate when treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

j) Name the gas evolved when potassium sulphide is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid

k) Name the gas evolved when hydrochloric acid is made to react with manganese dioxide.

l) Name an acid which on mixing with silver nitrate solution produces a white percipetate which is soluble excess of ammonium hydroxide .

m) Name the gas that is produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

2) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket.

a) The common name for hydrochloric acid is ______.(Muriatic acid/Aqua Fortis)

b) The traces of hydrochloric acid are present in ____.(pancreatic juice/ gastric juice)

c) Hydrogen gas and chlorine gas react____ when exposed to direct sunlight.(slowly/ explosively)

d) All metallic chlorides on heating with concentric____liberate hydrogen chloride gas.( nitric acid/sulphuric acid)

e) In laboratory hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating_____with conc. Sulphuric acid.(calcium chloride/sodium chloride)

f) During the preparation of hydrogen chloride from common salt and concentric Sulphuric acid, the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, if the reaction mixture is kept _____200°C (above/below)

g) Hydrogen chloride is collected by the upward displacement of air because its vapour density is____ as compared to air being 14.4. (36.5/18.5)

h) 1 volume up water at room temperature absorbs____ volumes of hydrogen chloride gas. (700/450)

i) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by passing it through____. (Phosphorus pentoxide/conc. Sulphuric acid)

j) An alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with hydrochloric acid gas is ____. (Sodium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide.

k) Quicklime is not used to dry HCL because _____. (CaO is alkaline/ CaO is acidic/ CaO is a neutral)

l) potassium sulphite on reacting hydrochloric acid releases ____gas.(Cl₂/SO₂/ H₂S) 

m) dry hydrogen chloride gas can be collected by _____displacement of air.(downward/ upward) is_____. (sodium hydrogen sulphate/sodium sulphate/chlorine)

n) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is _____.(Conc. H₂SO₄/conc. HNO₃/conc HCL)

3) Give balanced chemical equation for the following:

a) sodium thiosulphate and dilute HCl.

b) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and dilute HCl.

c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid and potassium permanganate crystals.

d) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

e) Action of hydrochloric acid on sodium bicarbonate .

f) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium sulphite.

g) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron.

State one Relevant Observation for each of the following:

1) When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium carbonate crystals.

2) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron(II) sulphide.

3) Lead nitrate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid and heated.

4) A small piece of zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.

5) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

6) hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air.

 

2 Marks questions 

1)a) What is the property of concentrated sulphuric acid which allows it to be used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride and nitric acid ?

b) What property of hydrogen chloride is demonstrated when it is collected by the downward)?

2) Write balanced chemical equations for the following the reactions:

a) zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

b) calcium bicarbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) What is observed when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

4) 

a) Name the experiment illustrated above.

b) Which property of hydrogen chloride is demonsrated by this experiment ?

5) a) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution ?

b) Write a balance chemical equation for the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphite.

6) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) Identify the gas Y.

b) What property of gas Y does the experiment demonstrate ?

7) a) Name two acids used in the formation of Aqua regia.

b) What is the ratio of these acids ?

8) In the laboratory preparation of HCl gas from sodium chloride, state, why the following are preferred.

a) conc. H₂SO₄ as reactant.

b) temperature of the reaction mixture below 200°C.

9) The diagram shows a simple arrangement of the fountain experiment:

a) Name the two gases you have studied which can be used in this experiment.

b) What is the common property demonstrated by this experiment?

10) Give an equation of HCl gas by synthesis. State to condition involved in its synthesis.

11) Why are conventional drying agent such as calcium oxide and Phosphorus pentoxide not used for drying moist HCl? Give equations 

12) Name two soluble nitrates which can be converted into insoluble chlorides by the use of dilute HCl. Support your answer by chemical equations .

3 Marks Questions 

1) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride 

a) Identify A and B 

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas jar filled hydrogen chloride ?

2) To a solution of hydrogen chloride, the following substances are added separately in small portions . Copy and complete the table given below.

No.  Substance added   Gas evolved   odour 

1.  Sodium sulphite         -----                  ____

2) Calcium carbonate     ____                ___

3. Magnesium ribbon.    ____.               _____

3) In and the laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid, HCl gas is dissolved in water.

a) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement used for the absorption of HCl in water.

b) Why is such an arrangement necessary?  giuve two reasons.

c)  Write the chemical equations for the laboratory preparation of HCl gas when the reactants are:

    i) below 200°C

    ii) above 200°C

4) Answer the following questions pertaining The laboratory person hydrogen chloride.

a) Write an equation for the laboratory refraction of hydrogen chloride.

b)  Name the drying agent used.

c) Name the method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas.

5) When concentrated hydrochloric acid is treated with potassium permanganate crystal a greenish yellow gas is given out.

a)  Name the gas evolved 

b) Write fully balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

c) Is hydrochloric acid acting as oxidizing agent or reducing agent?

6) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on the reaction:

a)  Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition/s if any .

b) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric acid ?

c) How is the gas collected ?

7) How will you obtain the following from dil. HCL acid ? Given equation 

a) hydrogen

b) carbon dioxide 

c) sulphur dioxide.

8) a) Hydrogen is burn in a greenish yellow gas A then another gas B is formed . The gas B gives dense white fumes with ammonia liquor . Name the gas A and B.

b)  Write the chemicals equations in support of your answer in (a).

9) what is an Aqua regia? How does it help in dissolving gold or platinum? Support your answer with chemical equations.

10) Write balanced chemical reaction for the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with each of the following:

a) iron

b) sodium hydrogen carbonate

c) iron (III) sulphide

11) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride.

a) identify A and B.

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas is filled with hydrogen chloride ?

12) a) Name the acid used for the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in the laboratory. Why is this particular acid preferred to other acids ?

b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride gas.

b) For the preparation of hydrochloric acid in laboratory:

    i) Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible ?

   ii) What arrangement is done to dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water ?

PERIODIC TABLE 

A) FILL IN THE BLANKS :

1) The serial number of an element in the pieriodic Table is also its____. (Atomic number /mass number )

2) The metallic character_____in a Group as one moves from top to bottom. (Increases/decreases.

3) The metallic character____ in a Period as one moves from left to right. (Increases/decreases).

4) _____is the most active nonmetal.(Chlorine/ Iodine)

5) _____is the most active metal.(Magnesium/ sodium)

6) An increase in nuclear charge____ the tendency of an atom to accept electrons. (Increases/ decreases)

7) The atomic size____as one moves from left to right across a Period.(Increases/ decreases)

8) The element in Group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature is____. (F/ Cl/ Br)

9) Nuclear charge of an atom is the____(negative/positive) charge on the nucleus of an atom, equivalent to the atomic____(numbers/mass) of an atom.

10) Atomic size of neon is_____than the atomic size of fluorine.(More/ less)

11) With increase in nuclear charge the nuclear attraction for outer electron____(increasees/ decreases), Hence ionisation potential____(increases/ decreases). 

12) If an element has one electron in its outermost shell. Then it is likely to be____. (Non metallic/ metallic)

13) The Properties of elements are periodic functions of their____. (Atomic numbers/ mass numbers)

14) The element below sodium in the same Group would be expected to have a___. (Lower / higher) electronegativity than sodium and the element above chlorine would be expected to have a_____(lower / higher) ionisation potential than chlorine.

15) On moving from left to right in a given Period, the number of shells___. (Remains the same/ increases/ decreases)

16) On moving down a Group, the number of valence electrons_____( remains the same/ increase/ decreases)

B) CHOOSE CORRECT OPTION:

1) The chemical properties of an element depends on its:

a) atomic mass

b) atomic number

c) atomic energy

d) atomic volume

2) Total number of vertical columns (Groups) in the Long Form of the Periodic Table is :

a) 8 b) 18 c) 17 d) 16

3) The element having the lowest ionisation potential in period 3 is:

a) Na b) K c) Mg d) A

4) The number of elements present in Period 3 is :

a) 6 b) 32 c) 18 d) 8

5) On going down a Group, the number of valence electrons.

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

6) The number of Periods in the Long Form of Periodic Table is:

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

7) On moving down a Group, the size of atoms :

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

8) Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius ?

a) Cl⁻ b) K⁺ c) S²⁻ d) Ca²⁺

9) On moving from left to right in a Period the metallic character of elements:

a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

10) The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is :

a) C > B > Be > Li

b) C > Be > B > Ki

c) B > C > Be > Li

d) Be > Li > B > C

11) Which halogen has the highest electron affinity ?

a) F b) Cl c) Be d) I

12) The most electronegative element in the Period Table is:

a) N b) O c) Cl d) F

13) Which has the smallest size?

a) Na⁺ b) Al³⁺ c) Mg²⁺ d) P⁵⁺

14) Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation potential in the Periodic Table?

a) F > O > N > C

b) O > F > N > C

c) O > N > F > C

d) C > N > O > F

15) The electron affinity for noble gases is likely to be:

a) high b) small c) zero d) Positive

16) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?

a) F b) O c) O⁻ d) Na⁺

17) The size of a positive ion is:

a) more than its atom.

b) less than its atom

c) equal to its atom

d) none of the above

18) Which one of the following is correct order of the size ?

a) I > I⁻> I⁺ 

b) I > I⁺> I⁻   

c) I⁺ > I⁻> I   

d) I⁻ > I > I⁺ 

19)The size of chloride ion (Cl⁻) is

a) smaller than chlorine atom

b) bigger than chlorine atom

c) equal to that of chlorine atom

d) none of the above

20) The ionic radii of N³⁻ , O²⁻ , F⁻ and Na⁺ follow the order

a) N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺

b) N³⁻ > Na⁺ > O²⁻ > F⁻  

c) Na⁺> O²⁻ > N³⁻ > F⁻  

d) O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > N³⁻

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The element present in the first Period.    

2) The biggest atom in the third Period. 

3) A solid halogen.   

4) The smallest element of third Period.   

5) The family of elements to which chlorine belongs.   

6) The family of elements to which sodium belongs.   

7) The family of elements to which argon and neon belongs. 

8) Least electronegative element of halogen family. 

9) A non metal which has three electrons in its outermost shell.

10) The smallest atom in the third Period.   

11) The least reactive elements in Group IA. 

12) The most metallic element in the third Period. 

13) The most nonmetallic element in the third Period.

14) The element which is most electronegative in the third Period.   

15) A greenish yellow gas other than chlorine.    

16) The most abundant halide salt.    

17) The element which has the highest ionisation potential.

18) The element of third Period which has least ionisation potential. 

19) The most electronegative element of second period.  

20) An element in period 3 with electronegativity 3.0.  

21) The element with the least ionisation potential in the 2nd period.    

22) The element which has the highest electron affinity in the third Period.   

23) The noble gas having an electronic configuration 2,8,8. 

24) The valency of elements in Group I.  

25) An element of group VIIA, solid at room temperature.    

D) TRUE/FALSE

1) The electron present in the outermost shell are called valence electrons.   

2) In a group, atomic and ionic radii decrease from top to bottom due to increase in the number of shells.     

3) The electron affinity of elements increases in a group from top to bottom and decreases along a Period from left to right.      

4) The amount of energy required to remove a loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated atom is called ionisation potential.      

5) Electron affinity is the property of an atom to attract electrons towards itself, when combined to form a compound.    

6) Lithium resembles radium and potassium in electropositive character and univalency.      

7) The element in a Group have consecutive atomic Numbers.      

8) On going down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table, the metallic character of elements increases.      

9) The tendency of an atom of an element to donate or lose electrons is called electropositivity.           

10) Iron is a non-metal.         

E) DEFINE:

1) Periods in Periodic table

2) Group in Periodic table

3) Periodicity

E) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:

1) What are Periods ?

2) How many electrones are present in the valency shell of the element with the atomic number 18 ?

3) Explain why electron affinity of an atoms increases from left to right along a Period in the Modern Periodic Table.

3) What happens in the number of valence electrons in the atoms of elements as we go down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?.

4) From amongst Be, B, and C, choose the element with the highest ionisation potential.

5) What is similar in the electronic structure of Li, Na, and K ?

6) Which of the following elements are in the same Group of the Periodic table ? Magnesium, Nitrogen, Beryllium, Sulphur 

7) Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original Periodic table 

8) State the Periodic law on which Mendeleev's Periodic table was based ?

9) In the Long Form of the Periodic Table. the elements are arranged according to their mass numbers. Is this statement correct ? if not, correct it.

10) How could the atomic radius of a noble gas compered with other elements in a Period ?

11) What similarity do halogen show in their molecular state ?

12) Why is ionization potential of O less that of N ?

13) Explain why the elements with low ionisation potential exhibit metallic properties.

14) Account for the difference in size of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ as Fe²⁺ = 0.76 A° and Fe³⁺ = 0.64 A°.

15) Give the formula of one species positively charged and one negativity charged that will be iso-electronic with Ne.

16) Mg²⁺ ion is smaller than O³ ion  althrough both are iso-electronic. Explain.

17) What is the probable formula of the oxide of silicon ? (Silicon occurs below carbon in the Periodic Table)

18) What would you expect the formula of a compared of hydrogen with an element I to be ? ( use I as the symbol of the element.)

19) How do the nature of oxides of the elements change on moving from top to bottom in a Group of the Periodic Table?

Give example.

20) What is the common feature of the electronic configuration of the elements at the end of Period 2 and Period 3 ?

21) if an element is in group 7(or group 7A). is it likely to be metallic or nonmetallic in character ?

22) What is meant by a group in a Periodic Table ?

23) theelectronegativities of the elements in period 3 of the Periodic Table are as follows with elements arranged in alphabetical order:

Al    Cl     Mg     Na      P      S       Si

1.5  3.0   1.2    0.9     2.1   2.5    1.8 

Arrange the elements in the order in which they occur in the Periodic Table from left to right. ( The group 1 element first, followed by the group 2 element and so on, up to Group 7.)

24) Predict the Group of an element X if its atomic number is 16.

25) Select the correct order of radii of three species Ca, Ca⁺ and Ca²⁺

a) Ca > Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺

b) Ca²⁺ > Ca⁺ > Ca

c) Ca⁺ > Ca > Ca²⁺ 

d) Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Ca

Assign suitable reason.

26) Electron affinities of two elements A and B are as follows:

A=3.79 eV and B= 3.56 eV 

Which of them will ionise more easily and why ?

27) How does the number of valence electrons vary on moving from left to right:

a) in the first Period of the Periodic Table?

b) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

c) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

28) The elements lithium, sodium and potassium were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties.

a) What are those similar properties

b) What is the usual name of this Group or family.?

29) Which is larger, Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why?

30) Chlorine , bromine and iodine elements were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties:

a) What are those similar properties ?

b) What is the common name of this Group or family ?

31) In the following set of elements, one element does not belong to the set. Select this element.  Give reason in support of your answer.

Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium, Beryllium .

32) Consider the following elements: Na, Ca, Al, K, Mg, Li

a) Which of these elements belongs to the same Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) Which of these elements belongs to the same Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

33) What is the cause of periodicity of elements in the Periodic Table?.

34) What are the following Groups known as?

a) Group IA

b) Group VIIA

c) Group Zero 

35) How did the following properties vary in a Period, say Period 3 ?

a) Atomic size

b) Metallic character

c) Non-metallic character

d) Ionisation potential 

e) Electron affinity 

f) Electronegativity

36) a) Name the elements of Period 3.

b) Which element in Period three is likely to react most violently with chlorine.

c) Of the 8 elements in Period 3, which is likely to form a compound of the formula XCl₃  with chlorine.

37) Match the following 

Column A 

a) Proton 

b) Sodium 

c) Barium 

d) Chlorine 

e) Electron

f)  Completed shell 

Column B 

i) An alkaline earth metal 

ii) halogen 

iii) noble gas 

iv) An alkaline metal 

v) Responsible for nuclear charge

vi) Occupied subshell 

38) Among the elements of the second Period (Li to Ne), pick out the element.

a) with the largest atomic size.

b) with the highest ionisation potential.

c) with highest electron affinity.

d) With highest electronegativity.

e) which is the most reactive metal.

f) which is the most reactive nonmetal.

39)a) How many Groups and Periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) On what basis is an element placed in a particular Period in a Group ?

c) The electronic configuration of three elements A, B and C are as follows:

A-- 2   8    18    18     8    1

B-- 2   8    18    18     7

C-- 2   8    18.   32    18   8

Find the respective Period and Group to which each of them belongs.

40) For each of the following pairs, predict which one has a greater ionization potential and greater electron affinity ?

a) I, I⁻

b) B, C

c) Li, Li⁺

41) What is the number of elements in:

a)  first Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) 2nd Period of the Modern Periodic Table  ?

c) 3rd Period of the Modern Periodic Table?

42) a) What are alkali metals ?

b) In which Group and Sub groups are they are placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why do they not occur free in nature?

43) This question refery to the elements of the Periodic Table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some of the elements are shown by letters, but the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

3    4    5    6    7    8    9    10 

A    B    C   D    E    F    G    H 

11 12  13  14  15  16  17  18 

 I     J     K    L    M   N    O  P 

Which of these elements:

a) are noble gases ?

b) are halogens ?

c) are alkali metals ?

d) are elements with valency 4?

44) An element X belongs to Period 3 and Group II of the Periodic Table . State :

a) the number of valence electrons .

b) valency of the element.

c) is it metal or nonmetal.

d) the name of the element

45) The atoms A and B have electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) and  (2,6) respectivaly.

a) to which Period do A and B belong ?

b) to which group do A and B belong ?

c) What are the valencies of A and B with respect to hydrogen ?

d) What is the formula of the compound of A and B ? Is the compound ionic or covalent in nature ?

46) An element X belongs to Period 2 and another element Y belongs to Group 15 of the Periodic Table.

a) What is the number of valence electrons in X ,?

b) What is Valency of X ?

c) What is the number of valence electrons in Y ?

d) What is the valency of Y?

47) In any vertical column of elements in the sub group A of the Periodic Table , as you go from top to bottom :

a) the elements become ____metallic (less /more)

b) the number of electronic shells ____ (increases/decreases)

c) The ionization potential ______. (decreases/ increases)

d) the electronegativity_______ (decreases/ increases).

48) a) What are noble gases ?

b) What is the speciality of the their outermost shells ?

c) in which group are they placed  ?

d) why is that Group referred to as Zero Group  ?

e)why are they referred to as inert gases 

49) a) What are halogens ?

b) in which Group and Sub groups are they placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why are they called halogens ?

e) why do they not occur free nature ?

50) Arrange the elements of Group VIIA according to the given conditions:

a) increasing order of atomic size.

b) Increasing non metallic character.

c) increasing ionization potential.

d) increasing electron affinity.

e) decreasing electronegativity .

51) The electronic configuration of an elements T is 2, 8, 7.

a) What is the Group number of T ?

b) What is the Period number of T ?

c) How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T ?

d) What is the valency of T ?

e) is it a metal or nonmetal ?

52) Arrange the following elements as per the guidelines in brackets.

a) Cl, Mg, Na, P( in increasing order of atomic size)

b) Al, Cl, Na, S ( in increasing order of ionization potential)

c) Ar, He, Ne (in decreasing order of number of electronics shells).

d) C, Li, F, N, (in increasing order of electronegativity)

e) C, F, Li, O, (in increasing order of electron affinity)

53) The table given below shows the mass number and the number of neutrons in 4 elements -- P,Q, R, S

Elements:              P    Q    R     S 

Mass number:     12   20  23   35

No of neutrons:    6    10  12   18

a) Write down the atomic number of S.

b) Write down the electronic configuration of S.

c) To which Group S belongs ?

d) To  which Period S belongs ?

e) What will be the nature (ionic or covalent) of the compound formed by 

i) R and S

ii) P and S

54) The position of three elements X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table is as shown below:

Group 16     Group 17

     ---                   X

     ----                -----

      Y                   Z

a) What will be the valency of Z ?

b) What is the name of the family to which element Z  belongs ?

c) State whether Z is a metal or nonmetal.

d) will Z be larger or smaller than Y ?

e) State whether Z is more or less reactive than X.

55) Fill in the blanks:

a) Group 3A elements have____ electrons in their outermost shells.

b) Nitrogen has ____electrons in its outermost shell.

c) Group zero elements have_____ electrons in their outermost shells except ____.

d) The outermost shell electrons are also known as____ electrons.

e) When an atom of magnesium unites with another to form a compound. ____electrons of magnesium are primarily involved.

56) Question (a) to (e) refer to change in the properties of elements on moving left to right across a Period of the Periodic Table . For each property, choose the letter corresponding to the correct answer from choices (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

a) The non metallic character of the element:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remain the same iv) depends on the Period 

b) The electronegativity :

i) depends on the member of valence electrons.

ii) remains the same

iii) decreases  iv) increases 

c) The ionization potential 

i) goes up and down 

ii) decreases iii) increases iv) remains the same 

d) The atomic size:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remains the same iv) sometimes increasees and sometimes decreases 

e) The electron affinity of the elements in Group 1 to 7;

i) goes up and then down 

ii) decreases and then increases

iii( increases  iv) decreases 

57) REASON BEHIND:

a) Sodium is referred to as a normal element.

b) Sodium and potassium are placed in Group I.

c) Noble gases have zero electron affinity values. Explain ?

d) Why is larger Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why ?

e) Why is the electron affinity for F Less than that of Cl?

f) Why electron affinity of halogen is comparatively high. Give reason.

g) Ionisation potential of alkali metals is comparatively low.

h) Electronegativity of chlorine is higher than that of sulphur.  Why ?

i) Sodium and potassium are called alkali metals . Why ?

j) Why is chlorine more reactive than bromin ?

k) Why Potassium is more reactive than sodium.

THE PERIODIC TABLE - PERIODIC PROPERTIES (2)

1) Complete the statements given below by the filling in the correct word in the blank from the word/s in bracket.

a) The periodic table based on the basic fundamental property______ (atomic weight/ atomic number/electronic configuration).

Modern Periodic Table has :

b) Elements arranged increasing order in atomic___ (numbers/weights).

c) _____horizontal rows called_____(5/7/18/ periods/groups).

d) ____ vertical columns called____ (6/8/18/ period/ groups).

e) Transition from ____to _&&_character across a period.( metallic/ non metallic).

f) Groups___ to___ sub-divided into A and B.( I/II/VI/VII)

g) Group ____to____are called 'normal' - ' representative elements'. (IA/II A/VIA/VIIA)

h) Group ____to____and____ are called 'transition elements'. (I B/VIB/VIIB/VIII)

i) Group _____at extreme____ contains 'noble gases' (I A/0/VIIA/right/left)

j) _______elements placed in group I A & II A. (reactive, metallic/reactive, non-metallic)

k) _____ elements placed in the upper right hand corner. (Non-metallic/metallic)

Periodicity in Properties:

l) Periodicity in Properties i.e., recurrence in properties are seen with elements belonging to the same____ (period/groups/sub-groups) in the periodic table after difference of _____ , ____ , _____ , or ____ , (18/2/32/8) in atomic numbers due to recurrence of similar ____.(atomic weights /number of shells/valence electronic configuration)

Position of Elements:

m) Alkali metals Li, Na are present in group_____(IB/IA/IIA)

n) Alkaline earth metal Be, Mg are present in group ____(IA/IIA/IVA)

o) Post-transitional metal - Al is present in group ____(IIA/IIIA/VIA)

p) Transition metal - Fe is present in group ____(VIIB/VIII/IB).

q) Transition metal - Zn is present in group ___ (IB/IIB/IIIB).

r) Lanthanide series are present in period _____(2/3/6/7)

s) Actinide series are present in period ____(2/3/6/7).

2) Name or state the following, pertaining to elements of the first three periods.

a) The number of electron shells in period- 1, 2 and 3 respectively.

b) The period number of the element 'X' having electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1.

c) The number of elements in the shortest period.

d) The number of short periods of the periodic table.

e) The metallic elements in period-2 and period-3.

f) The non-metallic elements in period-2 and period-3.

g) The element in period-2 and period-3 having stable electronic configuration.

h) The element in period-3 having 5 valence electrons.

i) The element in period-2 having electronic configuration 2, 4.

j) The period/s having 8 elements.

k) The element having one shell and one valence electron.

l)  The period containing 

      i) rate earth elements

      ii) radioactive elements.

m) The bridge element in period-2 which has a diagonal relationship with aluminium in period -3.

n) A metalloid in period -3.

o) The valency of the element in period-2 

      i) group- V

      ii) group- 0.

p) The type of bonding of the chloride of the element in periodic-3,  group- IIA.

q) The type of bonding of the oxide of the element in period-3, group IIIA & VIA.

r)  The state of the chloride of the element in period-3 group VIA.

s) The characteristics of the oxide of the element in period-3 group IIIA & IIIA.

t)  The character of the hydroxide of the element in the period-3 group -IIA.

u) The element in period-3 whose hydride is strong acid.

v) Two property trends of elements which increase from left to right in a period.

3)  Name or state the following for pertaining to elements in groups of the periodic table.

a) The number of valance electrons of the elements in group IA and in IIA.

b) The group number of the group having 3 columns of elements.

c) The group number to which lithium and sodium belong.

d) The group number to which magnesium and calcium belong.

e)  The group containing highly reactive, electronegative nonmetals only.

f) The group number to which elements with 7 valence electron belong.

g) The type of elements present in group I to VIIB & VIII.

h) The group to which inert, unreactive elements belong.

i) The group to which the most reactive metals belong.

j) The two property trends which remain same or similar down a subgroup.

k) The two property trends which increase down a subgroup.

l) A non-metal in group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature.

m) Two non-metals which react with a group VIIA element forming liquid chlorides.

n) An element from group IA which reacts with an element of group VIIA forming a soluble electrovalent compound.

o) An element from group IA which dissolves in water to give caustic potash .

p) A strong reducing agent from the elements - sodium of group IA and fluorine of group VIIA.

q) The element in group VIIA with the highest electronegativity.

4) Complete the table pertaining to periodicity of elements by selecting the correct term/s in each case:

a) The Modern Periodic Law states that properties of elements are periodic functions of their _____. (atomic mass/ molecular mass/ atomic numbers)

b) The properties which reappear at regular intervals in the periodic table are called ____(atomic/ period/periodic properties)

c) _______ is one of the periodic properties, periodic in nature. (electronic configuration/ atomic radius/ electron pull)

d) ____is the energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of a gaseous atom . (Ionisation potential/ electron affinity)

e) The unit of ionization potential is____(mV/eV/iV)

f) ______ is the amount of energy released when an atom in the gaseous state accepts an electron to form an anion. (Ionisation potential/electronegativity / electron affinity)

g) Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract____ to itself when combined in a compound.( protons/ electrons/ ions)

h) If the electronegativity difference between two combining atoms is small the bond between them is_____( electrovalent/covalent/co-ordinate covalent)

i) An element is said to be a______ if it loses one or more electron when supplied with energy. (Non-metal /metal/metalloid)

j) The unit of atomic radii is _____. (0°C/A°/eV)

k) A______ is formed from a metal by loss of electrons.(Anion/cation/proton)

l) Electron affinity of an atom is expressed in _____(A°/eV/mV)

m) An element X  gains an electron when supplied with energy. The electronic configuration of X is _____(2, 8/2, 8, 1/2, 8,7)

n) An element Y has atomic number 7 and mass number 14. It's neutron/ proton (n/p) ratio is_____ 3/1.5/1)

o) In the same period or sub group, increase or decrease in a particular (periodic) property is due to gradual charge in _____.(at. wr:/atomic size/ electronic configuration) in the arranged elements.

5) Select the correct element in each case:

a) Select the elements with the largest atomic radii- C, Be, N, F, Li.

b) Select the element with the smallest atomic radii- F, Ne, O

c) Select the element which has a higher electronegativity- N, F, Cl.

d) Select the element which has zero electron affinity- C, Li, O, Ne.

e) Select the elements which show metallic character- Na, Al, Si, P

f) Select the elements which show non-metallic character- Be, C, Li, Cl.

g) Select the elements which show metalloid character-- Be, B, C, N, F, Si.

h) Select the elements which have three electron shells - Li, B, Al, S.

i) Select the element which has the common valency 3- Li, Be, B, C, Al.

j) Select the element having the least electronegativity-- F, Cl, Br.

k) Select the element having the smallest atomic size-- F, Cl, Br.

l) Select the element having the largest atomic radii- N, P, As.

m) Select two elements whose electronegativity difference is large -- Na, C, Cl.

n) Select two element whose electronegativity is almost the same --Li, F, Na, Ne.

o) Select the element with the least electron affinity-- O, C, Ne, F

p) Select the element with the highest ionization potential-- O, F, Ne.

6) Arrange the following elements of different periods As per A and B:

A: ELEMENTS     C     O     N   Li    F    Ne    B   Be

B: ELEMENTS: Mg    Si     S    Al   Cl   Na   Ar    P

a) According to their decreasing atomic radii.

b) According to their decreasing ionization potential.

c) According to their increasing electronegativity.

d) According to their increasing electron affinity.

e) According to their metallic, non-metallic and noble gas character.

7) Arrange the following elements of different groups as per A and B:

                    A            B

                   Na          Br

                    K            F

                    Li          Cl

a) According to their decreasing atomic radii.

b) According to their increasing electronegativity.

c) According to their decreasing ionization potential.

8) Match the Columns:

COLUMN A                                COLUMN B

The factor which affects the 

a) atomic size- down a group      i) No. of shells, Nuclear charge

b) Ionization potential-down a group  ii) Nuclear charge, Atomic radii

c) electron affinity-down a group  iii) number of shells, Nuclear charge 

d) metallic character-down a group  iv) ionization potential, electron affinity

9)  Select the correct reason for the each of the statements given below from the choice of reasons A and B.

i) Characteristics properties occur at definite integrals in the Modern Table 

A: The definite intervals are after difference of either 1 or 8 or 16 or 32 in atomic numbers.

B: The definite intervals are after differences of either 2 or 18 or 18 or 32 in atomic number.

ii) Fluorine in group VIIA has a smaller atomic size than neon is group 0.

A: Outer shell in neon is completely filled, resulting in a form of repulsion .

B: Nuclear charge in fluorine atom is more than in the neon atom.

iii) First ionization potential of an atom is less than the second ionization potential.

A:  Energy required to remove first electron is more than that required to remove second electron.

B:  Energy required to remove first electron is less than that required to remove 2nd electron .

iv) Electron affinity of group 0 elements is zero.

A:  Elements with stable electronic configuration find it difficult to accept electrons.

B: Elements with stable electronic configuration find it difficult to lose electrons.

v) Elements with high electronegativity are usually non-metallic.

A: non-metallic elements tend to gain electrons when supplied with energy.

B: non-metallic elements tend to lose electrons when supplied with energy.

vi) Down a group, metallic character increases since ionization potential decreases.

A: Nuclear attraction for valence electrons decreases and electrons are loosely held.

B:  Nuclear attraction for valence electrons increases & electrons are strongly held.

10)

P\G   G1     2     3    4      5      6      7      0

P-2     Li     Be   B    C      N     O     F      Ne

         2,1   2,2   2,3  2,4  2,5   2,6  2,7    2,8

P-3   Na    Mg   Al   Si     P     S     Cl     Ar 

2.8,1 2,8,2 2,8,32,8,4 2,8,5 2,8,6 2,8,72,8,8

Complete the tables given below by choosing the correct words from the list :

 • decreases  •increases  •remains the same

a) Across a period in a periodic table

i)  ionization potential______

ii) Electron affinity______

iii) electronegativity_______

iv)  non-metallic character______

v) Density and melting point______

vi) Acidic nature of oxy-acids_____

b) Down a group in a periodic table

i) Ionization  potential ______

ii) Electron affinity_______

iii) Electronegativity ______

iv) non metallic character______

v) Density and melting point _______

vi) Acidic nature of hydrides_____

Reasons for increase or decrease in periodic properties :

c) Across a period in a periodic table

i) Atomic size___ because nuclear charge___number of shells ____.

ii) Ionization potential ______because nuclear charge ____, atomic radii _____.

iii) Non-metallic characters____because ionization potential___ atomic radii ____.

iv) Electron affinity____because, nuclear charge_____, atomic radii_____.

v) Electronegativity_____ because, atomic radii _____, nuclear charge_____

vi) Metallic character_____ because, ionization potential ______, atomic radii ____.

d) Down a group in a periodic table 

i) Atomic size_____ because number of shells _____nuclear charge ______.

ii) Ionization potential ____because atomic radii _____nuclear charge____.

iii) Non-metallic character___ because ionization potential ____, atomic radii ____.

iv) Electron affinity ______because, atomic radii _____,nuclear charge_____.

v)  Electronegativity____ because, nuclear charge-----, atomic radii ______.

vi) Metallic character ______ because, atomic radii ____, ionization potential _____.

1) State the salient features of the Modern Periodic Table , with special reference  arrangement of the periods and groups in the periodic table p. State how separation and periodicity of elements forms a special feature of the Modern Periodic Table .

2) State what are

a) periods 

b) period number

c) Group number  

in the Modern Periodic Table.

3) State the elements in correct order of increasing atomic number in period 1, 2 and 3 of the Modern Periodic Table .

4) State the property of trends of elements 

a) from left to right in a period.

b) on moving down a sub group

5) State the position of the following elements in the Modern Periodic Table .

a) normal or representative elements.

b) bridge elements.

c) transition and inner transition elements.

d) alkali metals.

e) halogens

f) noble or inert gases.

6) compare the group elements with 7 a group elements still what is the means by the terms periodic properties explain the terms properties explain with reason

METALLURGY 

1) Name a 'metal' which has the following properties.

a) Is a liquid at ordinary temperatures .

b) Has a low boiling point but does not float on water.

c) Is a light, soft metal which can be cut with a knife.

d) Does not give a note on striking.

e) Is found in the native state in nature.

f) Is Brittle at ordinary tempratures.

g) Is divalent and forms a white amphoteric oxide.

h) Has variable valency and forms a black basic oxide.

i) Is neither malleable nore ductile at particular temperatures .

j) Forms an alloy which is a liquid at ordinary temperatures .

k) Has a low density but does not float on water.

l) Is a soft metal whose oxide is amphoteric.

2) Name a 'nonmetal' which has the following properties.

a) Volatizes at low temperatures and burns in air with a pale blue flame.

b) Has a very high density.

c) Conducts electricity and is lustrous.

d) Does not conduct electricity but it is lustrous .

e) Has luster but does not sublime on heating.

f) Has high melting point.

g) Is the present in the alloy stainless steel.

h) Is liquid at ordinary tempratures.

i) Forms a gaseous poisonous neutral oxide and a gaseous acidic oxide which turns line water milky.

j) Forms a gaseous neutral oxide and a gaseous coloured acidic oxide.

k) Forms a neutral oxide, liquid at ordinary temperature.

l) Form a volatile chloride, liquid at ordinary temperatures.

3) Name a metal from the activity series which itself or its compounds show the following characteristic properties.

K   a) oxide and nitric reduced to metal by heat alone.

Na  b) Forms an oxide on exposure to air.

Mg  c) Does not react with cold, boiling water or steam.

Al  d) Displaces hydrogen from dilute sulphuric acid and forms a coloured salt,

Zn

Fe  e) Reacts with concentrated Sulphuric acid but not with concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Sn

Pb  f) oxide, hydroxide and carbon do not decompose on heat

[H]

Cu. g) Hydroxide on thermal decomposition gives a residual coloured basic oxide.

Hg  h) Has no action on dil HCl or dil sulphuric acid.

Ag  i) nitrate gives only one gas on Thermal decomposition.

Pt

Au j) nitrate leaves a coloured amphoteric oxide of heating.

4) Name the metal which finds application in the following:

a) i) As a cathode plate in dry cells

   ii) as a negative plate in storage batteries.

b) i) as an anti corrosive paint in the powder form.

   ii) for making compounds used as a pigment in paints.

c) i) in metallurgy as a reducing agent.

   ii) in metallurgy to free metals from dissolved oxides in sulphides.

d) i) in the amalgamated form as a reducing agent in the neutral medium.

   ii) In the amalgamated form in voltaic cells.

e) i) for covering underground telephone cables and wire systems .

   ii) for making electrical cables and transmission wires.

f) i) In the manufacturer of the ammunition.

   ii)  in the manufacture of the calorimeters and condenser tubes.

5) Name the alloy of the respective metals which finds application in the following:

a) Lead used in making blocks for printing.

b) copper used in hardware and in scientific instruments.

c) Aluminium used in the manufacture of pressure cookers.

d) copper used in gun barrel.

e) Aluminium used in making beams of a balance.

f) copper used in plating and resistance wires.

g) Lead used in soldering and fuse.

h) Steel used in cutlery.

i) copper used in silverwere and jewellery. 

TEST PAPER - 1

SECTION A

(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1:

Choose the correct answer to the questions from the given options:    (15)

(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only)

i) An aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless on electrolysis.

     which of the following could be alectrodes ?

P. anode: copper;  cathode: copper

Q. anode: platinum;  cathode: copper 

R. anode: copper; cathode : platinum 

a) only P 

b) only Q 

c) only R 

d) both Q and R 

ii) A compound P is heated in a test tube with the Sodium hydroxide solution. A red litmus paper held at the mouth of the test tube turns blue .

Which of the following could be compound P be ?

a) zinc sulphate 

b) copper sulphate

c) ferrous sulphate 

d) Ammonium sulphate

iii) The atomic mass of a sulphur(S), Oxygen(O),  and helium(He) are approximately 32, 16 and 4 respectively.

 Which of the following statements regarding the numbers of elements in 32 g of sulphur, 16 g of oxygen, and 4g of helium is correct?

P. 16g of oxygen contains four times the number of atoms as 4g of helium.

Q. 16g of oxygen contains half the number of atoms as 32g of sulphur.

a) Only P b) only Q c) both P and Q d) neither P nor Q

iv) Ammonia gas is passed through a quicklime and then collected in a jar. Red and blue litmus paper are placed in the jar. W, X, Y and Z are the four observations .

Which of the above observation correctly shows the reaction of the litmus paper to ammonia ?

Red litmus paper   Blue litmus paper 

W     turns blue             remains blue

X remains red              remains blue 

Y  remains red              turns red

Z  turns blue                 turns red

a) W b) X c) Y d) Z

v) Glucose reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to give a very pure form of carbon called sugar charcoal.

 The reaction taking place is:

a) oxidation  b) combusion  c) dehydration  d) combination

vi) In which of the following electrolytic cells (P,Q,R or S) will silver plating be done on the spoon ?

a) P b) Q c) R d) S

vii) The basicity of acetic acid is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

viii) A --> A⁺³ ; B ---> B⁻¹

Number of electrons present in the outermost shell of atoms A and B respectively are:

a)  5,1 b) 3,1  c) 3,7  d) 5,7 

ix) A_____solution is observed after placing Magnesium metal in a solution of Copper sulphate for half an hour .

a) blue b) colourless c) reddish brown d) dirty green 

x) An element with atomic number____ will form an acidic oxide.

a)  3 b) 17 c) 11  d) 13 

xi) Which of the following is NOT true with respect to nitric acid ?

a) It is strong reducing agent 

b) It is a strong oxidizing agent

c) it is unstable to heat 

d) It liberates Sulphur dioxide gas when treated with potassium sulphite

xii) ____ is the functional group in methanol.

a) > C= O b) --OH c) --CHO d) --COOH

xiii) The process of electrolysis is an example of:

a) oxidation reaction 

b) reduction reaction

c) redox reaction 

d) displacement reaction 

xiv) The catalyst used in the Oswald's process is ____.

a) finely divided iron    b) graphite 

c) Vanadium pentoxide d) platinum 

xv) An element belongs to third Period and sixteenth group. It will have____ electrons in its valence shell .

a) 2 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3 

Question -2

i) The setup shown below is that of the fountain experiment with hydrogen chloride gas in the flask.     (5)

 The fountain starts when a few drops of water from the dropper are introduced into the flask . Instead of the drops of water, Pooja started the fountain by introducing a few drops of Sodium hydroxide into the flask.

a) Explain why the litmus solution gets sucked up whrSodium hydroxide is used.

b) What will be the colour of the fountain when in Sodium hydroxide is used ? justify your answer.

c) if instead of HCL gas, ammonia gas is filled in the flask and water is introduced from the dropper, will there be a different observation ? justify your answer.

ii) Match the following columns A with Column B.     (5)

Column A 

a) aluminium 

b) sulphuric acid

c) calcination 

d) calcium chloride

e) carbon tetrachloride 

Column B 

1. covalent compound 

2. carbon ore

3. Hall Heroult's process

4. Contact Process.

5. Electrovalent compound 

iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answer from the bracket:   (5)

a) if an element has one electron in the outermost shell then it is likely to have the ______(smallest/largest) atomic size among all the elements in the same period.

b) ____ (sulphuric acid/hydrochloric acid) does not form an acid salt.

c) A _____(reddish brown/dirty green) colored precipitate is formed when ammonium hydroxide is added to a solution of ferric chloride.

d) Alkenes undergo____(addition/substitution) reactions .

e) An _____(alkaline/acidic) solution will turn methyl orange solution pink.

iv) Identify the following:     (5)

a) A bond formed between two atoms by sharing of a pair of electrons, with both electrons being provided by the same atoms.

b) A salt formed by the complete neutralization of an acid by a base.

c) A reaction in which the hydrogen of an alkane is replaced by a halogen.

d) The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral gaseous atom.

e) A homologous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and non-metal in a definite proportion in their molten state.

v) a) Draw the structural diagram for the following compounds:   (5)

1. 1- propanal

2.  1,2 dichloro ethane

3.   But-2-ene.

b) Give the IUPAC name of the following organic compounds:

1.       H    H    OH 

           |     |       |

      H---C--C----C---H

             |    |     |

            H   H   H 

2.    H     H    H    H    H

        |       |     |      |      |

   H--C----C----C----C----C----H

                |       |      |      |

                H    H    H     H

SECTION - B

(Attempt any four questions)

Question 3:    

i) Identify the reactant and write the balanced equation for the following:

Nitric acid reacts with compound Q to give a salt Ca(NO₃)₂, water and carbon dioxide.  (2)

ii) What property of sulphuric acid is exhibited in each of the following cases ?  (2)

a) In the preparation of HCL gas when it react with Sodium chloride.

b) When concentric sulphuric acid reacts with Copper to produce Sulphur dioxide gas.

iii)  The electron affinity of an element X is greater than that of element Y.   (3)

a) How is the oxidizing power of X likely to compare with that of Y ?

b) How is the electronegativity of X likely to compare with that of Y ?

c) State whether X is likely to be placed to the left or to the right of Y in the periodic table.

iv) a) State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. justify your answer.  (3)

1. In an electrovalent compound, the cation attains the electronic configuration of the noble gas that comes after it in the periodic table.

2. In the formation of a compound PQ₂, atom P gives one electron to each atom of Q. The compound PQ₂ is a good conductor of electricity.

b) Calculate the number of moles in 22 grams of carbon dioxide.

Question 4

i) The following questions related to extraction of Aluminium by electrolysis.   (2)

a) Name the other Almunium containing compound added to alumina.

b) Give a balanced equation for the reaction that takes place at the cathode 

ii) A gas cylinder of capacity 40 dm³ is filled with gas X the mass of which is 20g. When the same cylinder is filled with hydrogen gas at the same temperature and pressure the mass of hydrogen is 2g. Find the relative molecular mass of the gas.

iii) Give balanced equations for each of the following:

a) action of warm water on aluminium nitride.

b) oxidation of carbon with concentrated nitric acid.

c) dehydration of ethanol by concentric sulphuric acid at a room temperature of 170°C.

iv) with respect to Haber's process answer the following:

a) temperature of the reaction

b) catalyst used

c) balanced the equation for the reaction occuring .

Question 5

i) a) Ranjana wants to prove that ammonia is a reducing agent. To demonstrate this , she passes Ammonia gas over heated copper oxide. What will she observe ?    (2)

b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.    

ii) Name the alloy which is made up of:    (2)

a) copper, zinc and tin

b) lead and tin

iii) Seema takes a blue crystalline salt P in a test tube. On heating it produces a white anhydrous powder. P is dissolved in water. Zinc is added to one part of the solution and to another part of the solution Barium Chloride is added .     (3)

a) Name the compound P.

b) Mention one observation of the zinc is added to the solution of P.

c) State the colour of the percipitated formed when the blue chloride is added to the solution of P.

iv)  Give reasons :      (3)

a) Ethane undergoes addition reaction.

b) hydrocarbon can be used as a fuels .

c) hydrogen chloride gas cannot be collected over Water.

Question 6

i) Name the following:     (2)

a) the ore of zinc containing its sulphide.

b) The most commonly used oxides ore of aluminium.

ii) State one observation in the following cases.     (2)

a) sodium chloride solution is added to the solution of lead nitrate .

b) Barium Chloride solution is added to a solution of zinc sulphate.

iii) copper sulphate solution is electrolysed using copper electrodes.   (3)

a) which electrodes (cathode or anode) is the oxidising electrode? Why?

b) Write the equation for the reaction occuring at the above electrode .

iv) X[2, 8, 7] and Y[2, 8, 2] are two elements. Using this information complete the following:    (3)

a) ____ is the metallic element.

b) metal atoms tend to have a maximum of ____electrons in the outermost shell.

c) ____ is the reducing agent.

Question 7

i) The empirical formula of an organic compound is C₃H₄N. Its molecular weight is 108.

 Find the amount of carbon in one mole of the compound. Show all the steps involved.

( atomic weight C=12, H= 1, N=4).       (3)

ii) a) Mahesh prepared a basic solution X.  that has a pH 7.        (3)

 How will the pH of the solution C change on addition of the following?

   1.  hydrochloric acid  2. a solution of a base.

b) The atomic number of an element is 15. To which group will this element belong to ?

iii) 8.2 grams of calcium nitrate is composed by heating according to the equation

2Ca(NO₃)₂----> 2CaO+ 4NO₂ + O₂.       (3)

Calculate the following:

a)!volume of nitrogen dioxide obtained at STP.

b) Mass of CaO formed 

(Atomic weight: Ca=40, N=14, O= 16)

Question 8

i) State giving reason if :    (2)

a) zinc and Aluminium can be distinguish by heating the metal powder with concentrated sodium hydroxide solution.

b) calcium nitrate and lead nitrate can be distinguished by adding Ammonium hydroxide solution to the salt solution.

ii) draw an electron dot diagram hydronium ion.    (2)

iii) give balanced equation for the following:    (3)

a) laboratory preparation of ethyne from calcium carbide.

b) conversion of acetic Acid to ethyle acetaye.

c) laboratory preparation of nitric acid.

iv) identify the following substances :      (3)

a) An Alkaline gas which produces dense white fumes when reacted with HCl gas.

b) The anion present in the salt, which produces a gas with the smell of rotten eggs when reacted with dilute HCl.

c) the particle present in strong electrolytes.

 

10/8/26

MODERN PHYSICS 

1) What is the mass, charge and nature of charge on an electron ?      9.1x31⁻³¹kg, 1.59x 10⁻¹⁹C,  negative, 

2) What is a free electron ?

3) What are the reasons for an electron to become a free electron ?

4) Name two characteristics of substances which depend upon the number of free electrons contained in a substance.

5) What do you mean by the work function?

6) What is an 'electron volt' (eV)?  What does it measure ?      Energy 

7) Express 1 electron volt in terms of joule and erg.      1eV= 1.59 x 10⁻¹⁹J, 1eV= 1.59x 10⁻¹³ erg

8) What is thermionic emission ?

9) What is thermion ?

10) State the factors which govern rate of emission of electrons due to heating.

11) What is space charge ?

12) What is the nature of charge in space charge ?

13) Why a cathode ray tube is so named?

14) Draw a diagram of cathode ray tube and label its different parts.

15) What is the function of filament in the cathode ray tube?

16) Why is the electron gun so named?

17) Why is the screen of cathode ray tube coated with fluorescent material?

18) There are two sets of plates

i) X- X plates

ii) Y-Y plates in a cathode ray tube.

What is their relative orientation and what are they used for?

19) Describe three important uses of cathode ray tube.

20) What is an atom ?

21) What is the total charge in an atom ?       Zero 

22) How do you define atomic number of an atom ?

23) How do you define atomic weight of an atom ?

24) What is the meant by the nucleus of an atom.

25) What is the nature of charge on the nucleus ?      Positive 

26) Which particles are contained inside the nucleus of an atom and what are their masses and charges ?

27) What are isotopes ? illustrate with an example.

28) Name the different types of forces between nucleons.

29) Which of the above quoted forces is

a) strongest.     Nuclear forces 

b) weakest.        Magnetic forces

c) charge dependent.      Electrostatic forces 

d) mass independent .      Electrostatic forces 

e) mass dependent .     Gravitational forces

f) spinal dependent .     Nuclear forces 

30) What is meant by the binding energy of a nucleus ?

31) Draw a graph showing variation of average binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus with the atomic number.

32) Give two important conclusiond drawn from the binding energy curve.

33) a) What is radioactivity ?

b) Why is radioactivity so named ?

34) a) Who discovered radioactivitt ?

b) Who discovered radium ?

35) What are the constitutions of α, β and γ-rays ?

36) Following equations relate to the phenomenon of radioactivity. Determine the missing part of the equation.

a) ᴬᵧX---> ᴬᵧ₊₁X + ?.          β-ray

b) ᵧᴬX----->  ᴬᵧ+ ?             γ-rays

c) ᵧᴬX--->ₓ₊₁ Xᴬ + ᵧ?X + α-ray.        ᵧ₋₂ᴬ⁻⁴

d) ᵧ?X---> ᵧ₋₁ᴬ + βray.                α-ray

e) ᵧᴬX ---> ᵧ₋₁ᴬ⁻⁴ + ?                 ᵧ₋₂ᴬ⁻⁴

f) ᵧᴬX ----> ? + α- ray                   α-ray

37) Electric field is applied between two plates P and Q.  A radio-active radiation passes through it as an shown. Identify the ray .

38) An α-particle passes through a uniform electric field as shown in the figure. Trace the path of the particle.       deflected towards negative plate 

38) Radioactive radiations emitted from a radio-active source pass through a uniform electric field as shown in diagram. Draw the course of radiations.

39) State two units for measuring radioactivity of a radioactive sample. How are these two units related with each other ?

40) What do you mean by carbon dating ?

41) What are radioactive tracers.  Give two examples .

42) Give two examples of the use of the radio-isotopes in medicine.

43) How do you define a roentgen ?

44) Fill in the blanks:

a) An electron has a negative charge of___coulomb.

b) Proton is a ____'charged particle.

c) Neutron is an _____charged particle.

d) Atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of____ contained inside the nucleus.

e) An increase in the number of neutrons inside a nucleas does not affect its ______number.

f) Electron volt(eV) is the unit of_____.

g) Thermion is a ____charged particles .

h) Chlorine 35 chlorine 37 are the____of chlorine.

i) Isotopes have same ____number.

j) _____ force is the strongest force between two nucleons.

k) _____force between two nucleons is maas independent.

l) _____ force between two nucleons is spin dependent.

m) ____ rays are the heaviest of all the radioactive rays.

n) ____' rays are most penetating of all the radioactive rays.

o) Curie is the unit of ____

37) State whether the following statements are true or false:

a) Atomic number is equal to the number of protons in an atom.

b) Atomic number is equal to the number of electrons in an atom.

c) Thermions are positively charged particles.

d) α-rays pass undeflected through an electric field.

e) β-rays are effected by an electric field.

f) Emission of α-rays results in decrease of atomic weight of atom by 4.

g) Due to emission of γ-rays neither atomic weight nor atomic number of the atom is affected.

h) Unit of Radioactivity is roentgen.

i) Radioactivity was discovered by Marie Curie.

j) Rutherford is the unit of radioactivity.

k) Curie is the unit of radioactivity.

____'ccf___'ccfffccc____'cfc___________

A) FILL IN THE BLANKS.

1) Rate of flow of charge is called___.(current/resistance)

2) The flow of current is due to the motion of____.(Protons/electrons)

3) The work done in moving a positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of_____.(resistance/potential difference)

4) The current is____ proportional to potential difference and___proportional to resistance.(Directly/inversely)

5) The SI unit of current is ____.(Coulumb/ampere)

6) The combined resistance of any number of resistors connected in____is equal to the sum of the individual resistors.(Parallel/series)

7) The SI unit of potential difference is ____.(Watt/volt)

8) A cell converts____energy into____energy.(electrical/chemical)

9) The specific resistance does not depend on the___of a conductor.(temperature/dimensions)

10) The SI unit of conductance is _____.(ohm/ohm⁻¹)

11) The SI unit of resistance is_____. (Ohm/mho)

12) E. M. F of a cell is potential difference in___circuit.(a close/an open)

13) If n equal resistance are put in parallel, the total resistance is equal to___. ((Rn/R/n)(reciprocal/same (

14) The SI unit of resistivity is ____. (Ohm/ohm-m)

15) Conductivity is____of resistivity.(parallel/reciprocal)

B) State whether True or False. Also correct the false statement.

a) Potential difference between two points is less than the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the other.

b) The emf of a cell depends on the shape and the distance between the electrodes.

c) A good conductor of electricity offers more resistance.

 

d) The resistance of a wire decreases with the increase in its temperature.

e) it is advantages to join the cells in series only if the internal resistance of each cell is high energy compared to external resistance.

C) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:

1) What is mean by the term electric current ? what is its SI unit ?

2) By what name is the physical quantity coulumb per second called ?

3) Is a wire carrying current charged?

4) State whether electric current is a vector quantity or scalar quantity.

5) Define an empier of current.

6) Electric field is applied across a conductor from north to south direction. Give the direction of drifting of electrons.

7) Is potential a vector or scalar quantity.

8) What is the SI unit of potential difference 

9) What is meant by the saying that potential at a point is 1 volt.

10) By what other name is joule/coulumb called?

11) State the relation between the potential difference, work done and charge moved.

12) Define the term 'resistance' Give the SI unit.

13) How does the resistance change with the temperature in a conductor ?

14) What are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends ?

15) A wire is stretched to twice its original length. Is its resistance change or not ? if yes, by what factor does its resistance change?

16) What do you understand by the term 'internal resistance' of a cell ?

17) Differentiate between resistance and specific resistance.

18) Define electrical resistivity of a material ?

19) On what factor does the resistivity of a wire depend ?

20) Which will have higher resistivity, a conductor or an insulator ?

21) State the order of resistivity of a metal, a semiconductor and an insulator.

22) A wire P is stretched to double of its length. What is the new resistivity ?

23) Why is an alloy manganin used to make standard resistance ?

24) What is the necessary condition for a conductor to obey Ohm's law ?.

25) State the conditions under which the Ohm's law holds good.

26) you are given three resistance of 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm. How will you combine them to get an equivalent resistance of

a) 6 ohm.         

b) 6/11 ohm.     

27) Write an expression for the equivalent resistance R of three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ joined in:

a) parallel 

b) series

28) You have resistors of values 2 ohm, 3 ohm and 5 ohm. How will you join them to so that the total resistance is less than 2 ohm ?

29) Write an expression for the resistance of conducting wire in terms of it's length and area of cross section.

30) Mention two factors on which internal resistance of a cell depends.

D) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 

1) State when it is most advantage to connect cells :

a) in series

b) in parallel

2) How does the resistance of the wire depend on its length ? Give a reason to your answer.

3) What are the limitation of Ohm's Law ?

4) What are ohmic and non-ohmic conductors ? Give one example of each and draw the graph to show their current-voltage relationship.

OR

 What are Ohmic and non-ohmic resistance ? Give two examples of each.

5) On what factors does the internal resistance of a cell depend ?

6) Manganin and Eureka are used for making standard resistances . Explain .

7) What do you understand by the term 'series circuit'?

8) Give three characteristic of a series circuit.

9) What do you understand by the term 'parallel circuit'?

10) Give three characteristics of a parallel circuit.

11) Why is not advisable to keep the cells connected in parallel when not in use ?

12) Why should the internal resistance of a cell be low ?

13) What is meant by e.m.f. of a cell ? In what unit is expressed ?

14) Explain why the potential difference across the terminals of a cell is more in an open circuit and it is reduced in a closed circuit.

OR

 Explain why is the potential difference across the terminals of a cell less than its e.m.f. when a current is drawn from it.

15) On what factors that does the resistance of a conductor depend ?

OR

Does the resistivity depend upon the dimensions of a conductor ?

16) State Ohm's law.

17) What is the difference between e.m.f  and the terminal voltage of a cell ?

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 

1) The electric current is due to the flow of :

A) positive charges only 

b) negative charges only

c) both positive and negative charges

d) neutral particles only

2) The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of:

a) current b) potential difference c) resistance d) power

3) The device used for measuring potential difference is known as:

a) potentiometer  b) ammeter c) galvanometer d) voltmeter 

4) Which one of the following is the SI unit of electric charge?

a) watt b) ohm c) ampere d) coulumb 

5) Which of the following is an Ohmic resistance ?

a) diode  b) germanium c) diamond d) nichrome 

6) Ohm's law is applicable to :

a) discharge of electricity through gases 

b) diode valve 

c) all metallic conductors 

d) Ohmic conductors

7) In a circuit containing two unequal resistors connected in parallel:

a) the current is the same of both the resistors.

b) the current is larger in larger resistors.

c) the voltage drop is the same across both the resistors.

d) the voltage drop is large across large resistor.

8) When the length of conductor is doubled , the resistance of the conductor will:

a) remain the same 

b) double in value 

c) become half 

d) become four times.

9) Conductivity is the reciprocal of:

a) resistance 

b) specific resistance 

c) current density 

d) current 

10) The length of a conductor is halved. Its conductance will be:

a) halved b) unchanged c) doubled d) quadrupled

11) Which of the following statement does not represent Ohm's law:

a) current/potential difference =constant 

b) potential difference/current = constant 

c) potential difference = current x resistance 

d) current = resistance x potential difference

12) The resistivity of a wire depend on:

a) the length of wire

b) the area of the cross section of wire

c) the nature of the material of wire 

d) all of the above three factors.

13) The SI unit of Resistivity is :

a) ohm b) ohm/m c) ohm x m d) mho

14) If a wire is stretched to make its length 3 times, its resistance will become:

a) three times  b) one third c) nine times d) one ninth.

15) When the temperature of a metallic conductor is increased, its resistance:

a) always decreases 

b) always increases

c) may increase or decrease 

d) remains the same.

16) Potential at the surface of the charged body:

a) is the same all over the surface 

b) depends on mass

c) depends on the shape of the surface

d) none of them 

17)  An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r. The current in the circuit is maximum when:

a) R> r b) R< r c) R= r d) R= 2r

18) The specific resistance of any known material is not affected by change in:

a) temperature  b) pressure c) applied magnetic field d) dimensions 

19) For which of the following substances , resistance decreases with temperature ?

a) copper  b) Mercury c) Carbon d) platinum

20) The equivalent resistance in series combination is:

a) smaller than the larger resistance.

b) larger than the largest resistance.

c) smaller than the smaller resistance.

d) larger than the smallest resistance.

NUMERICAL PROBLEMS

1) The voltage across 3 Ω resistance is 6V. How large is the current ?     2A

2) What is the resistance of a filament lamp when a voltage of 3V across it causes a current of 0.5A ?        6Ω

3) Four resistors of resistance 0.5 Ω, 1.5 Ω, 4Ω and 6 Ω are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f. 6V and negligible internal resistance. Calculate 

a) the current drawn from cell.     0.5A

b) p.d. at the end of each resistor.      0.25V, 0.75V, 2V, 3V

4) Five resistors each of 3 Ω, are connected as shown in figure.

Calculate the resistance:

a) between the points P and Q.     2Ω

b) between the points X and Y .      8Ω

5) Study the circuit diagram carefully and calculate:

a) the current in main circuit.     1.80A

b) the current in each of the resistors in parallel circuit.       1.2A, 0.6A, 1.2A, 0.6A

6) Figure shows a circuit diagram containing 12 cells,

each of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.25 Ω. Calculate 

a) total internal resistance.     3Ω

b) total emf.        18V

c) total external resistance.      9Ω

d) reading shown by ammeter.      1.5A

e) current in 12Ω and 8Ω resistors.         0.75A

f) p.d. across 2.2Ω resistors .           3.30V

g) drop in potential across the terminals of battery.       4.5V

7) For the combination of resistors as shown in the circuit,

find the equivalent resistance between 

a) A and B.   2.25Ω

b) C and D.        8.25Ω

8)  Four resistances are connected as shown in figure. ar potential difference is applied between the points P and S.

a) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points Q and the R.   1.2Ω

b) What is the equivalent resistance between the points P and S ?    6.2Ω

c) If the current flowing through the 3Ω resistance is 2A, what is the current through the 2Ω resistance ?     3A

d) What is the current through 4Ω resistance.       5A

e) What is the current through the 1Ω resistance ?     5A

f) What is the potential difference between P and S?    31 volts 

9) Figure shows a circuit diagram having a battery of 24V and negligible internal resistance. 

Calculate 

a) reading ammeter.     2A

b) reading of V₁ , V₂, V₃.    3V, 4V, 17V

10) Carefully study the circuit diagram shown below

and calculate the value of resistors x.  11Ω

11) A cell of EMF 1.8V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected in a series with an ammeter of resistance 0.7Ω and a resistor of 4.5Ω as shown in figure 

a) What would be the reading of ammeter ?    0.25A

b) What is the potential difference across the terminals of the cell ?     1.3V

12)  A battery of emf 3V is connected in series with an ammeter, a 10 Ω coil of wire and with a parallel combination of resistances of 3 Ω and 6 Ω. Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement. What is the :

a) resistance of the parallel combination ?    2Ω

b) reading on the ammeter?        0.25A

c) potential difference across the 3Ω resistors ?     0.5V

d) current flowing through 3Ω resistors ?    0.17A

13) A cell supplies a current 0.6A through a 2Ω coil and a current of 0.3A through a 8Ω coil . Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the cell.     3.6V, 4Ω

14) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points X and Y

in the network shown below:         1Ω

15) In the given figure

A, B and C are three ammeter. The ammeter B reads 0.5A. (All the ammeters have negligible resistance). Calculate 

a) the reading in ammeter A and C.    1.5A

b) the total resistance of the circuit.    4Ω

16) Calculate the resistance between point X and Y in the network shown below.   0.71Ω

17) Figure shows

a battery having an emf of 9 V and internal resistance of 0.6Ω, connected to three resistors A, B and C, Calculate the correct in each resistor.    1.08A, 0.72A

18) Calculate the equivalent resistance in the following combination of resistors r₁, r₂, r₃, r₄. 

       R= {(r₁+ r₂)r₃ + (r₁+ r₂+ r₃)r₄/(r₃ + r₄)

19) Four cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω are connected in series. The combination is connected in series to an ammeter of negligible resistance, a 1.6 Ω resistor and unknown resistor R₁. The currenr in the circuit is 2A.

Draw a labelled circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate the total resistance in a circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate:

a) the total resistance in the circuit.    (2+ R₁)Ω

b) the total emf.     8 volts 

c) the value of R₁.          4Ω

d) the potential difference across R₁.      4V

20)  Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 2 Ω in parallel are connected to a cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.3 Ω. Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement and calculate the current drawn from the cell.      1.0A

21) Given below is the circuit diagram

in which three resistance of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected to a cell of EMF 2V and internal resistane 0.5Ω.

a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit .     2.0Ω

b) What is the reading of the ammeter ?        1A

c) What will be the ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in series with the given cell ?       1.33A

22) The following circuit diagram shows

three resistor 2Ω, 4Ω and R Ω connected to a battery of EMF of 2V and internal resistance 3 Ω. A main current of 0.25A flows through the circuit.

a) What is the potential difference across the 4Ω resistors.       1V

b) Calculate the potential difference across the internal resistance of the cell.     0.75V

c) What is the potential difference across the R Ω or 2Ω resistors?    0.25V

d) Calculate the value of R.     2Ω

23) In the figure shown below,

calculate:

a) the value of combined resistances of 40 ohm and R, using the reading of the two metres.     10Ω

b) the value of R.      13.3Ω

c) the current flowing through R.     0.3A

24) A cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 10 ohms is connected to a resistors of 5 ohms, with an ammeter in series( see figure).

What is the reading of the ammeter ?    0.1A

25) Four cells, each of the EMF 1.5 V and internal resistance 2.0 ohms are connected in parallel. The battery of cells is connected to an external resistance of 2.5 ohms. Calculate :

a) The total resistance of the circuit.    3Ω

b) the current flowing in the external circuit, and the reading of the ammeter.    0.5A

c) the drop in potential across the terminals of the cells .     0.25V

26) With reference to the diagram given below, 

calculate:

a) the equivalent resistance between P and Q.    2.4Ω

b) the reading of ammeter .        1.66A

27) Four resistance 2.0 Ω if each are joined end to end to form a square ABCD. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination between two adjacent corners.    1.5Ω

CURRENT ELECTRICITY 

1) How do you define electric potential qualitatively ?

2) Give quantitative definition of electric potential.

3) How do you define 1 volt ?

4) How do you define electric current ?

5) What is conventional current ?

6) What is Electronic current ?

7) Draw graph for stupeady current and variable current.

8) The direction of motion of electron, through a conductor, inps shown in figure.

Mark the direction of conventional current through the wire.

9) How do you define unit of measurement of electric current?

10) A charge of 50 coulomb crosses from one end of the conductor to the other in 10 second. Calculate the electric current.      5A

11) A current of 8A flows, through a conductor, for 5 second. Calculate the amount of charge transferred from one end to the other.      40C

12) How do you define one ampere ?

13) A work of 50 J is done in taking a charge of 5 coulomb from one point to the other. What is the potential difference between the two points ?     10V

14) Some circuit elements are shown in the figure. Give their names.

15) State Ohm's Law .

16) Describe an experiment to verify Ohm's Law .

17) What is meant by an ohmic conductor ? Give one example.

18) What is non-ohmic conductor ? give one example.

19) a) What is resistance of a conductor ?

b) What is resistance so named ?

c) How is resistance of a conductor related with electric current flowing through it ?

20) What are the factors upon which the resistance of a conductor depends ?

21) How would you explain that resistance of conductor is directly proportional to its length ?

22) How would you explain that resistance of conductor is inversely proportional to its area of cross section ?

23) An electric circuit is shown in figure.

The reading of ammeter is 3A. What will be reading of voltmeter?        18V

24) On opening the switch S, in the circuit, shown in figure,

which bulb/s will be switched off .        B and C 

25) Two electric bulbs P and Q are connected in an electric circuit as shown in the diagram.

Where should we connect(at A, B, C or D) one switch so that 

a) bulb P can be switched on/off at will.       C

b) bulb Q can be switched on/off at will.      B or D

c) Both P and Q can be switched on/off at will.     A

26) Refer with figure and tell  which switches should be close to.

a)  light lamps L₁ and L₂.       S₁ and S₂

b) light lamps L₁ and L₃.        S₁ and S₃

c) light all the lamps .            S₁, S₂and S₃

d) State which lamps, if any, will be lit for each of the following switch conditions .

Switch S₁  Switch S₂ Switch S₃  Lamps on

Closed.      Open        Closed         ___

Closed       Open        Open           ____

Open        Closed      Closed          ____

Closed      Closed       Open           ____

27) Assuming the ammeter connected in the circuit (see figure)

has negligible resistance, determine the value of R.       5 ohm

28) a) What is conductance of material ?

b) How is conductance of a material related with its resistance ?

29) What is units in which resistance is measure ? Define it.

30) What is the unit in which conductance of a conductor is measured ?

31) How do you define resistivity of a material ?

32) State the factors upon which registivity of a material depends.

33) What are the units in which the resistivity of a material is measured ?

34) What is the relation between resistivity and conductivity of a conductor ?

35) What is the effect of rise of temperature on the resistance of a conductor ?

36) How does resistivity of a conductor change with rise of temperature ?

37) How do you define temperature coefficient of resistance of a substance ?

38) What is the difference between temperature coefficient of resistance of a metal and that of a semiconductor ?

39)  You wish to construct a resistance box. What should be the characteristics of the wire to be used ?

a) Resistivity          high/low

b) Temperature coefficient of resistance       high/ low

40) you wish to construct a resistance thermometer. What should be characteristics of the wire to be used ?

a) Resistivity          high/ low

b) temperature coefficient of resistance.       High /low

41) A wire having resistance R has its length doubled and diameter halved . What will be its new resistance ?        8R

42) A wire of resistance R has its length and diameter increased 3 times. What will be the more resistance ?        R/3

43) A wire of resistivity ρ is broken into two halves . What will be the resistivity of one half of the wire ?        Same 

44) Describe the two colour codes of the carbon resistances .

45) Two carbon resistances are shown in figure.

What are their resistances ?    3500± 10%, 25000± 5%

46) A current 2A flows through a conductor when potential difference across its ends is 10V. What is its resistance?        50 ohm

47) A current of 5A flows, through a conductor, of resistance 100 ohm. What is the potential difference across the two ends of the conductor?     50V

47) A wire has a length 100m on and diameter 1mm. What is the resistance of the wire ? Resistivity of the material of wire is 49 x10⁻⁶ ohm cm.     62.40 hrs

48) Show that if a number of resistances are connected in series with each other, the new resistance of the combination is equal to the sum of their resistance.

49) Three resistances are connected of 2 ohm, 5 ohm and 10 ohm are connected in series with each other. 

What will be the new resistance of the combination ?   17 ohm

50) You are provided with two resistances of 50ohm and 80 ohm in series with each other. What resistance should be connected in series with them so that net resistance of combination is 150 ohm ?       20 ohm

51) A battery of 5 V and internal resistance 1 ohm is connected to a combination 8 ohm and 11 ohm connected in series with each other. Calculate the current in the circuit.     0.25A

52) Show that if a number of resistance are connected in parallel with each other, reciprocal of the net resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of their individual resistances .

53) How do you recognise that different resistances are connected in series ?

54) A student has connected some mechanical components as shown in figure .

The lamp does not light since the circuit is not complete. Where must the crocodile clips be connected so that the lamp lights only when the switches are closed.      Between A and F

55) Circuit as shown in figure contains three cells each of the EMF 2V.

a) What is the total voltage of the battery ?     6V

b) What is the combined resistance of two 3W resistance ?      1.5 ohm

c) What is the total combined resistance of all the three resistances in the circuit ?    4 ohm

d) Calculate the reading of ammeter A.      1.5A

e) Calculate the reading of voltmeter V.     3.75 V

56) Electric circuit shown in figure has two resistors connected to a battery of negligible internal resistance.

a) Are the two resistances in series of parallel ?      Parallel 

b) What is the combined resistance ?      2 ohm

c) What is the P.D across combined resistance ?     16V

d) What is the potential difference 3W resistance?     16V

e) Find the current through the 

     i) 3 ohm resistance .     16/3 A

    ii) 6 ohm resistance.        8/3 A

57) How do you recognise that different resistances are connected in parallel with each other ?

58) A 12 V battery is connected into an electrical circuit as shown in figure.

If the reading of voltmeter is 6V, calculate the 

a) reading of ammeter.      1A

b) value of R.        6 ohm

c) The reading of ammeter if the resistances are connected in parallel instead of an series.       4A

59) Three distance, 12 Ohm each, are connected in parallel with each other. What will be the net resistance of the combination ?       4 ohm

60) A cell EMF 2V is connected across 3 resistances 1 ohm each, connected in parallel with each other. What is the EMF across first resistance ?     2V

61) A current i gets divided into two resistances r₁ and r₂ connected in parallel with each other. Calculate the current through each of them.

62) A current of 10 gets divided into two resistances of 2 ohm  and 3 ohm connected in parallel with each other. Calculate the current in each of them.    6A, 4A

63) Calculate the electric current in the circuit shown in figure . 

     1A

64) Calculate the resistance between terminal A and B as shown in figure. 

     2r

65) How do you define electromotive force of a cell ?

66) What is the unit of EMF 

67) What is the difference between EMF and potential difference ?

68) What is internal resistance of a cell ?

69) What is the direction of current through electrolyte of a cell?

70) Obtain an expression for the internal resistance of a cell in terms of EMF and potential difference.

71) Potential difference across the two terminals of a cell is less (when it sends current) than its EMF. Why is it less and by how much amount ?

72) Reading of voltmeter (figure)

are 5 V and 4.5 V when the key K is open and closed respectively. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell.     1 ohm

73) When a cell delivers a current of 2A to an external circuit, the potential difference across its terminals falls from 10V to 9V. 

Calculate the internal resistance.      0.5 ohm

74) A cell of EMF 2V is connected to an external resistance of 4 ohm. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell if a current of 0.4 A flows through it.    1 ohm

75) n cells, each of EMF E and internal resistance R are connected in series with each other. The combination sends a current through an external resistance R. Calculate the current in the circuit if

i) R << nr

ii) R >> nr

76) What is the optimum condition for the cells to be connected in series with each other ?

77) n cells each of emf and internal resistance R, are connected in parallel with each other. Calculate the current through the circuit if the external resistance R is 

a) much greater than r/n

b) much smaller than r/n

78) Under what condition is the parallel combination of a number of cells most suitable ?

79) Three cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 1 ohm are connected in parallel with each other. What is the

a)  net EMF.     2V

b) net internal resistance of the combination ?     1/3 ohm

80) Three cells each of EMF 2V and internal resistance 1ohm are connected in series with each other. The combination sends a current through an external resistance of 3 ohm, Calculate the current through the circuit.      1A

81) Two cells each of EMF 4V and internal resistance 2 ohm are connected in parallel with each other. The combination sends a current through an external resistance of 1.5 ohm. Calculate the current in the circuit.     2A

82) Fill in the blanks:

a) Current through a wire flows due to motion of____

b) Potential difference is analogus to_____in heat.

c) Electric potential is defined as the work done per unit____

d) Unit of potential difference, in SI is ____

e) The directions of electronic current and conventional currents are____ to ach other.

f) The ratio between potential difference to the ___is a constant quantity and is known as____.

g) Resistance of a conductor is measured in ____

h) Thicker the wire _____is its resistance.

i) Unit of Resistivity is _____

j) Conductance is the reciprocal of ___£

k) Resistivity is the reciprocal of____

l) Resistance of a semiconductor____ with a rise in temperature.

m) In case of a number of resistances connected in series _____current flows through them.

n) In case of a number of unequal resistances connected in parallel ____ current flows through them.

o) Potential difference across the two terminal of a cell is always ____than its EMF .

p) Combination of cells, in series, is most effective when the external resistance is much_____ than the total internal resistance of the combination.

q) Combination of cells, in parallel, is most effective when the external resistance is much___ than the total internal resistance of the combination.

83) State whether the following statements are true or false:

a)  Potential differences is a scalar quantity.

b) Unit of potential difference is JC⁻¹.

c) Electric current is equal to the product of charge and time.

d) Unit of electric current is Cs⁻¹.

e) Direction of conventional electric current is opposite to that motion of electrons.

f) Conventional current and electronic current flow in same directions.

g) Resistance of a thinner wire is less than that of thicker wire of same material and length.

h) Unit of resistance is VA⁻¹.

i) Product of resistance and conductance of a conductor is one.

j) Resistivity of a conductor is directly proportional to its length.

k) Temperature coefficient of change of resistance for an alloy is more than that of pure metal.

l) Equal resistances, connected in parallel, have different currents flowing them.

m) Resistance connected in series, have same potential difference across each of them.

n) Greater than internal resistance of the cell, greater is the difference between E and V.

o) Direction of current, through the electrolyte of a cell, is from negative to positive electrode.

p) There is no change in the EMF of a battery, having all similar cells in parallel, if we increase or decrease the number of cells

----+-+++;++++++++++++++++

1) A man weighing 700N runs up a flight of 15 steps, each 20cm high, in 5 seconds. Calculate the power of the man.     

2) a) A generator changes____ energy to _____ energy.   

b) In cell _____energy is changed to _____energy.    

c) An electrical bulb changes ______energy to ____ and ____ energy.      

3) What happens to the K.E when

a) the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity.     

b) the velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass.

4) Give three examples of bodies possessing potential energy.

An object kept at a height above the ground

5) Give three examples of bodies possessing kinetic energy.

6) What is the form of the graph between K. E and mass for a constant velocity?

7) What is the form of the graph between KE and velocity for a constant mass?

8) What happens to the power if the time for doing a work is reduced from t seconds to t/10 seconds?

9) A given force displaces an object through a distance S in its own direction and then in a direction inclined at 60° to its own direction. What is the ratio of the work done in the two cases?

10) Can two agents, doing the same work, have different powers.

11) Can the power of an 'agency' doing a smaller amount of work, be more than that of another agency doing a larger amount of work?

12) A man of mass 70 kg goes up across 20 steos in 21 seconds . If each step is 30 cm high, what is the power developed by the man ? taking g= 10m/s².

13) Define work. What is its SI unit ?

14) What is the expression for the work done by a constant force acting on a body ?

15) Give an example when a work done by a force acting on a body zero even though the displacement is not zero.

16) Define joule

17) What is the value of the total energy of a body, at any instant, after it is allowed to fall from a height of 5 m ? The mass of the body is 1 kg and the value of the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s².

18) What is the net work done by A body moving over a complete circular path ?

19) A still target is hit by a bullet of mass 100 g moving with a speed of 500 m/s. If the bullet is brought to rest by this target over a distance of 20cm, find out 

a) the initial K. E of the bullet 

b) the average value of the retarding force exerted by the target on the bullet.

20) What type of energy transformation takes place in 

a) an electric motor.          

b) an electric cell ?            

21) Is any work being done on a car moving with a constant speed along a perfectly straight , perfectly smooth and perfectly horizontal road ?

22) When is the potential energy of an oscillating simple pendulum 

a) maximum 

b) minimum.    

23) State the energy changes which occur in the following :

a) burning of a fuel.

b) A steam engine

c) battery

24) What are the energy changes taking place in the following appliances:

a) a loudspeaker 

a) an electrical heater

c) a petrol engine.

25) Which form of energy is converted into another form of energy by

a) microphone 

b) a washing machine

26) What kind of energy transformation is taking place when an electric current is being drawn from

a) an electrical cell

b) a generator 

HEAT

1) Heat gained or absorbed is independent of ____.

a) mass  b) time c) temperature  d) none of these 

2) The SI unit of heat capacity is____.

a) joule b) joule per kg c) joule per Kelvin d) erg per gm

3) Heat capacity is_____

a) mass x specific heat 

b) mass x temperature 

c) mass ÷ specific heat 

d) mass/specific heat 

4) SI unit of specific heat capacity is ____

a) calorie per kg 

b) erg per dollar 

c) joule per kg per kelvin 

d) joule per kg per Celsius 

5) Specific heat capacity is___ mass.

a) inversely proportional 

b) dependent on 

c) equal  d) independent of 

6) _____has higher specific capacity.

a)  steam  b) Ice c) Sea water  d) water 

7) The value of specific heat capacity of water is :

a) 4.2 Jg⁻¹C⁻¹

b) 4209 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹

c) 4020 Jkg⁻¹C⁻¹

d) both (a) and (b)

8) Water is used in car radiator because _____

a) it is a good repellent 

b) it is a good heat radiator 

c) it is a good heat absorber

d) it is a cheap

9) Principle of mixtures or calorimetry is applicable when ____.

a) two bodies at different temperature are in thermal contact.

b) two bodies at same temperature are in physical contact.

c) two bodies at different temperature are in physical contact.

d) all of the above 

10) Latent heat is____'

a) Heat radiated 

b) heat conducted 

c) heat absorbed

d) hidden form of energy stored inside a substance responsible for phase change.

11) When water gets converted into steam the temperature is called____

a) steaming point

b) boiling point 

c) vaporization point 

d) distillation point 

12) When steam gets converted to water the process is called____

a) condensation b) liquefaction c) solidification  d) melting 

13) Water converting into ice is due to___

a) freezing  b) solidification c) sublimation d) evaporation 

14) The process in which solid gets converted into gas without going through the intermediate liquid phase is called ____

a) condensation b) evaporation c) solidification d) sublimation 

15) During change of physical state temperature:

a) changes  b) varies c) remains constant d) become zero 

16) Latent heat of vaporization of steam takes place at its____

a) boiling point 

b) melting point

c) liquification point 

d) freezing point 

17) Latent heat of fusion of ice is ___

a) 336J b)  336 Jkg⁻¹ c) 336 x 10³ Jkg⁻¹ d) 336 x 10³JK⁻¹

18) On release of external pressure, the ice recombines to its solid state. This process is called as____

a) reunion b) regetion c) freezing  d) anti melting 

19) Boiling point of a liquid____ with addition of impurities.

a) increases b) remains constant c) changes  d) decreases

20) Melting point of ice___ on applying pressure.

a) decreases  b) increases c) remain same  d) none 

21) Freezing mixture is a mixture of ___ and ____

a) Ice, salt 

b) salt, water 

c) distilled water, salt 

d) liquid Nitrogen and Oxygen

22) The ratio of adding salt to ice in the formation of freezing mixture is____

a) 1:3 b) 3: 1 c) 1: 4 d) 4:1 

23) Freezing curve has a ____slope.

a) positive b) negative c) uniform d) no slope 

24) Heating curve has a ___slope.

a) positive  b) negative  c) constant  d) none 

25) In case of water, boiling takes ____time than freezing .

a) less  b) more c) equal  d) none 

26) The SI unit of thermal capacity is:

a) J°C⁻¹ b) JK⁻¹ c) cal C⁻¹ d) cal K⁻¹

27) The principal of calorimeter is based on:

a) law of conservation of mass

b) law conservation of energy

c) law of conservation of temperature  d) none 

28) If temperature rises by 10°C, what is the equivalent rise in the Kelvin scale ?

a) 273K b) 283  c) 10K d) 0 K

29) The melting point of a substance is numerically equal to its:

a) boiling point b) freezing point  c) condensation point  d) none 

30) Which of the following statement is true about line segment 3 in the graph given below ?

a) a solid is melting with constant temperature

b) is solid is melting with rise in temperature

c) a liquid is heating with rise in temperature 

d) a liquid is boiling with constant temperature.

31) Which of these carries the maximum amount of heat energy ?

a) 1g of ice at 0°C

b) 1g of water at 0°C

c) 1g of water at 100°C

d) 1g of steam at 100°C

32) The specific latent heat of fusion of Ice is:

a) 2260Jg⁻¹ c) 80Jg⁻¹ c) 336 Jg⁻¹ d) 4200 Jg⁻¹

HEAT 

1) Water converts to____ at its boiling point.   

2) Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a substance by 1 K is called___ heat capacity.   

3) _____bottles are used to relieve sprain pains.   

4) Hidden form of energy responsible for phase change is called ____heat.   

5) Heat lost is equal to heat gain is called principle of ____.  

6) Thermal capacity varies with___ of the body.   

7) ____ point increases with addition of impurities.      

8) Gases undergoes____ while converting to liquid state.    

9) Ice ___ to water at 0°C.   

10) Heat determines the____ state of the body.     

11) ____ is followed by cooling effect.     

12) ____ vessel are preferred over stainless steel for cooking.  

13) The process of conversion of solid state to gaseous state directly without passing through the intermediate liquid phase is called as ____.  

QUESTION PAPER -1

Time : 30 minutes        Marks: 20M

Section 1

(All questions are compulsory)

1)a) State the condition when the force on a current-carrying conductors is at 

i) zero 

ii) maximum.         2

b) Why soft iron core is used within the coil of a DC motor ?      2 

c) State two ways by which the EMF of AC generator can be increased.   2

d) What will happen to a compass needle when the compass is placed below a wire and current is made to flow through the wire. Give reason to justify your answer.   2

e) State one point of similarity and one point of difference between an AC generator and DC motor.    2

Section 2 

(Attempt any question out of two)

2a) Draw a simple lebelled schematic diagram of an electromagnet.     3

b) State the three ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet.    3

c) Differentiate between the permanent magnet and electromagnet.     4

4) a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of an AC generator and state the principle on which it works.     4

b) State the different ways of increasing the speed of rotation of a coil.    3

c) What is the principle on which DC motor works ? State the energy of conversion taking place.    3

PAPER -3 (ELECTROMAGNETISM)

1) Electromagnetic induction is induction of___ due to the presence of external___.

a) magnetic field, electric field 

b) electric field, magnetic field 

c) electric field, electric field

d) magnetic field, magnetic field 

2) More are the numbers of turns in the coil____ the current.

a) more  b) less  c) no flow of  d) none of these 

3) Current flowing through a conductor is ____

a) directly proportional to the area of cross section of coil.

b) inversely proportional to area 4cross section.

c) constant.

d) twice the area of cross section.

4) Change in magnetic flux of a conductor_____

a) no effect on current flowing through it 

b) changes the current induced in it

c) decreases the current flowing through it.

d) increases the current induced in it.

5) Lens law is a _____ law of Faraday's.

a) equivalent b) derived c) directional d) opposite 

6) According to the clock rule when the current flowing through coil is anticlockwise the polarity at the force is_____.

a) South b) West c) North  d) East 

7) When the polarity of face is South the current is in_____.

a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) east direction d) in the West direction

8) Transformers works on the principle of____.

a) self-induction 

b) mutual induction 

c) magnetic effect of electric current

d) Joule's law of heating.

9) inr step up transformer the number of turns in primary is____.

a) equal to turns in secondary 

b) more than turns in secondary

c) less than turns in secondary  

d) none of the above 

10) if number of turns in secondary is less than number of turns in primary the transformer is:

a)  step up b) ideal  c) ineffective d) step down

11) The primary coil is ____than secondary in step up transformer.

a) slimmer b) thinner c) thicker d) none of these

12) In step down transformer the secondary coil is___ than primary.

a) thicker b) thinner c) same size d) none of these 

13) mpMajor loss in a transformer is____.

a) friction loss

b) loss in the form of sparks

c) loss in the form of sound

d) hysteresis loss

14) Loss in a transformer due to the coils is based on:

a)  Ohm's law 

b) Joule's law heating

c) Pascal's law 

d) Coulumb 's law

15) Losses in transformer can be minimised by :

a) laminating the soft iron core with the mica sheet.

b) heating it

c) keeping it in deep freezer 

d) none of the above 

16) AC generator is also termed as____

a) rotor  b) pump c) dynamo d) Motor

17) DC motor converts electrical energy to ____energy

a) mechanical

b) Kinetic 

c) rotation 

d) mechanical Kinetic rotational 

18) DC motor consists of _____rings

a) split

b) slip

c) diamond

d) gold

19) Dynamo is an example of conversion of mechanical Kinetic rotational energy to ____

a) sound energy

b) heat energy 

c) electrical energy

d) gravitational potential energy

20) The strength of the electromagnets can be____ and also also____.

a) increased, decreased 

b) decreased , increased 

c) decrease, decrease 

d) increase, increase 

21) If the strength of the current flowing through a wire is increased , the strength of magnetic field produced by it:

a) remains unchanged

b) increases

c) decreases 

d) first increases and then decreases 

22) Which of the following will decrease the strength of a magnetic field due to current through a circular loop ?

a) increasing the number of turns in the coil 

b) increasing the strength of the current flowing through the coil

c) increasing the radius of the coil 

d) none of these 

23) If the resistance of the rheostat attached in the circuit providing current to a wire is increased, its magnetic field strength will 

a) remain same

b) increase 

c) decrease 

d) cannot decide on this parameter alone.

24) A permanent magnet is made of :

a) soft iron 

b) nickel 

c) Steel 

d) copper 

25) The rule that helps to find the direction of force acting on a current-carrying conductor is:

a) Lenz's  law 

b) Right-hand thumb rule 

c) Fleming's rights and rule 

d) Fleming's left hand rule 

26) A coil carrying current when placed between the pole pieces of magnet experiences a:

a) pressure 

b) couple 

c) electrical force

d)  none of these

27) The energy conversion in a DC motor is:

a) magnetic to electrical 

b) mechanical to electrical

c) electrical to magnetic 

d) electrical to mechanical 

28) The rule that gives the direction of induced current in a conductor is:

a) Fleming's left p-hand rule 

b) Fleming's right-hand rule 

c) Right-hand thumb rule 

d) Lenz's law

29) The energy conversion taking place in an AC generator is:

a) mechanical Kinetic rotational to electrical 

b) electrical to mechanical 

c) magnetic to electrical 

d) electrical to magnetic 

30) The frequency of AC current supplied at our houses has a frequency of 50 Hz.  The number of times the polarity of the current changes in 1s is:

a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) none of these 

31) The turns ratio in a step-up transformer is:

a) less than one 

b) greater than 1 

c) equals to one 

d) could be any of these.

ELECTROMAGNETISM

A) FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1) The faster the coil, the___ the voltage produced by a generator.(lesser/greater)

2) A ____ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.(dynamo/d.c. motor)

3) An a.c generator has_____ . (a split rings commutator/two full rings)

4) A transformer is always used in ___ current circuit.(direct/alternating)

5) A step-up transformer converts a ____ alternating voltage to a____alternating voltage.(low/high)

6) In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the____coil are more than the number of turns in the___ coil.(primary/secondary)

7) In a step-down transformer, the ratio of number of turns in secondary coil to the number of turns in primary coil is____ than one. (less/more)

B) TRUE OR FALSE

1) A current cannot produce a magnetic field.   

2) A temporary magnet is made from steel.

3) A device by which electrical energy can be converted into mechanical energy is called a Dynamo.

4) Magnetic strength of an electromagnet (I- or U-shaped) can be decreased by increasing the number of turns of insulated wire.

5) A d.c motor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.

6) The magnetic field set up by a current carrying conductor acts at an angle of 180° to the direction of flow of current.

7) A transformer is a device that increases or decreases the voltage of an alternating electric current.    

8) In a step up transformer, the primary coil has more number than the secondary coil.

C) CHOOSE the correct answer:

1) In an electric motor, the energy transformation is:

A) from electrical to chemical

B) from chemical to light

C) from mechanical to electrical.

D) from electrical to mechanical

2) When a current flows in a wire, it creates :

A) an electric field outside

B) a magnetic field around it.

C) both electric and magnetic fields.

D) neither electric field nor magnetic field.

3) When a straight conductor is carrying an electric current:

A) there are Circular magnetic lines of force around it.

B) there are no magnetic lines of force near it.

C) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor along the direction of current.

D) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor opposite to the direction of current.

4) Magnetic lines of force:

a) cannot intersect at all.

b) intersect within the magnet.

c) intersect only at south and north poles .

d) intersect at neutral point only

5) The magnetic lines of force, inside a current-carrying solenoid, are:

a) along the axis and are parallel to each other.

b) perpendicular to the axis and equidistant from each other.

c) circular and do not intersect each other.

d) circular at the ends but are parallel to the axis inside the solenoid.

6) A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid:

a) will become zero 

b) will decrease

c) will increase

d) will remain unaffected 

7) A electric generator actually acts as:

A) a source of electric charge

B) a source of heat energy

C) an electromagnet

D) a converter of energy.

8) The direction of induced current is obtained by:

A) Fleming's left hand rule

B) Maxwell's left hand rule

C) Ampere's rule

D) Fleming's right hand rule

9) Electromagnetic induction is involved in:

A) charging a body with a positive charge.

B) production of current by relative motion between a magnet and the coil.

C) rotation of the coil of an electric motor.

D) generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid.

10) For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be:

a) soft iron  b) steel c) brass d) laminated Steel strips

11) Which of the following has its working based on Electromagnetic induction?

A) Ammemeter. B) Voltameter

C) Transformer. D) Galvanometer

D) QUESTIONS)

1) When can an electric charge give rise to a magnetic field ?

2) Why is a magnetic needle deflected when it is placed near a current carrying conductor?

3) Do the magnetic lines of force change their direction with the change in direction of current?

4) State the unit of magnetic field in terms of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.

5) State the pattern of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor.                  

6) What is an electric motor ?

7) State the principle on which a simple d.c motor works?

8) On what factors does the magnitude of induced e.m.f. depends ?.

9) What energy conservation takes place in a generator?

10) what is transformer?

11) Give one application of electromagnetes.

12) Name the principle on which functioning of a transformer depends. 

13) what is the function of a step up transformer? 

14) Can a transformer work when it is connected to a d.c. source?

15) State two ways of increasing the speed of rotation of a d.c. motor. 

16) State the transformation of energy which takes place in a generator when a current is drawn from it. 

17) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased. 

Increasing the current through the solenoid..

18) State two ways which the e.m.f. in an a.c generator can be increased. 

19) State the function of a split ring in d.c. motor. 

20) State a law which determines the direction of a magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.

21) State Fleming's right hand rule.

22) Why does the field of the centre of the coil carrying current is in clockwise and anticlockwise direction ?

23) What effect will be there on a magnetic compass when it is brought near a current carrying solenoid? Justify your answer.

24) State two dissimilarities between a d.c. motor and an a.c. generator. 

23) State two characteristics of the primary coil of a step up transformer when compared to the secondary coil. 

24) With reference to a d.c. motor state:

a) the energy change that takes place.

b) the principle on which it operates. 

25) state the main difference between a step up and a step down transformer. 

Question Based on Diagrams 

1) Draw a representative diagram of a d.c. motor. Label the following in your diagram:

a) the field magnet

b) the armature

c) commutators

d) wire brush

2) Draw the diagram of step up and step down Transformers.

3) Diagram shows schematically part of a step-down transformer.

Draw the complete diagram in your answer sheet.

4) Figure shows a circuit containing as coil wound on a long and thin hollow cardboard tube. Copy the diagram. 

a) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

b) Draw the magnetic lines of force inside the coil and also show their directions.

c) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.

5)i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of an a.c. generator.

ii) What is the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the coil when its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field?

6) the following diagram show two straight wires carrying current.

Copy the diagram and draw the pattern of the lines of the force around them and mark the directions .

7) The diagram shows at coil connected to a centre zero galvanometer G. The galvanometer shows a deflection to the right when the N-pole of a powerful magnets is moved to the right as shown:

i) Explain why the deflection occurs in the galvanometer ?

ii) does the direction of the current in the coil appear clockwise or anticlockwise viewed from the end A?

iii) State the observation in G both the coil is moved away from N.

iv) State the observation in G when, both the coil and the magnet, are moved to the right at the same speed.

8) Draw a labelled diagram to show the various components of a step up transformer.

9) Draw a labelled of an a.c. generator.

ELECTRO - MAGNETIC INDUCTION 

1) Why is the study of electromagnetic induction so named ?

2) What is meant by magnetic flux ?

3) State two factors upon which the magnetic flux linked with a given surface depends.

4) Under what circumstances can the magnetic flux linked with a surface be

a)! zero ?

b) maximum ?

5) Experimentally, describe how electric current can be induced in a coil,

a) due to motion of a magnet in its neighbourhood ?

b) due to motion of the coil in the neighborhood of a fixed magnet ?

c) due to current changing in a neighbouring circuit ?

6) A magnet approach a coil L.  Draw the direction of the induced current in the coil.

7)  a coil approaches a fixed magnet as shown in figure. Draw the direction of current induced in the coil p.

8) State Faraday 's laws of electromagnetic induction.

9) Name and state the law which determines the direction of induced current.

10) How do you verify Kenz's law, experimentally ?

11) Show that Lenz's law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.

12) As the north pole of a magnet approaches a coil with a velocity of 40 cm/s, a deflection of 10 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer as shown in figure 

a) Mark the direction of induced current in the coil in figure (a)

b) Mark the deflection in galvanometer and the direction of induced current in the coil in figure b,c,d.    10 divisions towards left in figure (b) 15 divisions towards right in figure (c), 15 divisions towards left in figure (d)

13) The key K of the electrical circuit is closed for some time and released. Explain your observation as observed from galvanometer.

a) key just closed .

b) key kept closed.

c)  key just released.

d) key kept open.

14) Statement Flemming's  right hand rule.

15) A rectangular coil rotates in between the two poles pieces of a magnet in such a way that AB moves out of the plane of the paper and CD moves into it. Mark the direction of induced current and explain how do you arrive at this conclusion.

16) What is alternative current ?

17) Draw graph between current i and time t for A.C.

18) What is a dynamo ?

19) What are the two types of dynamos ?

20) State the principle upon which a dynamo is based ?

21) Draw a sketch of A.C dynamo and label it.

22) Describe the construction of the different parts of the A.C dynamo

a) Armature 

b) Field magnet

c)  Slip rings.

d)  Load 

23) What type of current is obtained from a a.c dynamo. Express it graphically  ?

24) Draw a diagram for a DC dynamo and label its different parts.

25) What type of current is obtained from a DC dynamo ? Express it graphically.

26) Discuss the statement that AC/DC generator is a misnomer.

27) what is a transformer ?

28) Draw the sketch of a transformer and label its different parts. Discuss construction of different parts.

a) primary coil 

b) secondary coil 

c) corw.

29) Why do we take the core of a transformer in laminated form ?

30) What is meant by transformer ratio ?

31) What is the difference functioning of a step-up and step-down transformer ?

32) In case of step-up transformer which of the two currents (Iₚ or Iₛ) is greater ?

33) Discuss the statement " in case of a transformer, whatever is gained in voltage is lost in current".

34) Name two types of losses in a transformer ?

35) Why do we transmit power to a distant station at a high voltage ?

36) Fill in the blanks:

a)  Magnetic flux linked with a surface placed ______to the magnetic lines of force is zero.

b) Current induced in a coil depends upon the____ at which a magnet is moved in its neighbourhood.

c) Direction of induced EMF is given by ____law.

d) Alternating current is that which changes______ in magnitude and reverses ___ in direction.

e) Dynamo is a device which converts _____ energy into electrical energy.

f) Transformer is a device which alters the____ of electric energy.

g) The core of a transformer is made up of _____

h) A step of transformer is that in which,

i) Eₛ _______Eₚ

ii) Iₛ_________Iₚ

iii) nₛ_______nₚ

iv) K ______one

37) State whether the following statements are true or false :

a) Magnetic flux is a measured in weber.

b) A current can be induced only by an increasing magnetic flux.

c) A greater change in magnetic flux results in greater induction of current.

d) Direction of induced current is always opposite to the direction of inducing current.

e) Flemming's right hand rule gives the direction of induced current.

f) Alternating current never attains a constant value.

g) Dynamo is a device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

h) A step down transformer has number of turns in primary less than that in secondary.

i) A transformer changes the wattage of the source of electricity.

 

ACID, BASE, ALKALI

A) Choose the correct alternative 

1) Which is a hydroscopic substances 

a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) Calcium oxide c) Phosphorus pentoxide d) all of these 

2) The degree of ionization of an acid is called:

a) strength of an acid  b) concentration of an acid c) combining capacity of an acid d) both a and b

3) The property of salts, giving up water of crystallization to the atmosphere is

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescence d) none

4) The property of salts of absorbing moisture from the air and then changing to liquid state is:

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescence d) none

5) The property of salts of observing moisture from air, but do not change into liquid state is:

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescences d) none

6) A salt which is amphoteric in nature is:

a) ZnO b) CuO c) Fe₂O₃ d) CaO

7) Which of the following forms acidic solution in water ?

a) CuSO₄ b) ZnSO₄ c) K₂SO₄  d) both a and b 

8) Ammonium hydroxide solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

9) Ammonium sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature  b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

10) Sodium carbonate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature  b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

11) Sodium sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none of these 

12) Copper sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none of these 

13) An oxide of a nonmetal used for making soft drinks is:

a) SO₂ gas b) CO gas c) NO₂ gas d) CO₂ gas

14) A soluble metallic compound with H⁺(aq) ions of an acid to form a salt in water as only products is:

a) alkali b) base c) basic salt  d) none of these 

15) An acid salt is:

a) Potassium hydrogen sulphate b) potassium hydrogen carbonate c) magnesium hydrogen carbonate d) all of these 

16) an inorganic acid amongst the following is:

a) Acetic Acid b) formic acid c) hydro-cyanic acid d) oxalic acid

17) A tribasic acid is:

a) H₂SO₃ b) H₃PO₄ c) HNO₃ d) CH₃COOH

18) The salt which forms neutral solution in water is:

a) sodium sulphate b) ammonium chloride c) copper sulphate d) silver nitrate

19) a salt which forms an acidic solution in water is:

a) sodium chloride b) ammonia carbonate c) silver nitrate d) potassium sulphate 

20) A salt which forms basic solution in water.

a) CH₃COONH₄ b) CH₃COOK c) KCl d) NaNO₃

21) The base amongst the following compounds is :

a) sodium hydroxide b) potassium hydroxide c) copper hydroxide d) ammonium hydroxide 

22) 2Al(OH)₃+ 3H₂SO₄ ---> Al₂(SO₄)₃ + 6H₂O

in the above chemical equation the acidity of Al(OH)₃ is:

a) 1 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2

23) The salt which forms a neutral solution is water is:

a) (NH₄)₂SO₄ b) Na₂SO₄ c) Na₂CO₃ d) Cu(NO₃)₂ 

24) the colour of pH paper in odourless solution of ph7 is

a) deep blue b) yellow c) green d) Orange

25) The colour of pH paper in limewater [Ca(OH)₂] is 

a) green b) red c) blue d) Orange 

26) Ammonium hydroxide is an example of 

a) strong alkali b) weak alkali c) strong base d) none of these 

27) Sodium nitrate is an example of:

a) normal salt b) acidic salt c) basic salt d) none of these 

28) Sodium acetate(CH₃COONa) is an example of:

a) normal salt b) basic salt c) acidic salt d) none of these 

29) pH of dil. H₂SO₄ is more than acetic acid. So Sulphuric acid has

a) greater concentration of H⁺ ions b) same concentration of H⁺ ions c) low concentration of H⁺ ions d) none of these 

30) The base amongst the following hydroxides is:

a) sodium hydroxide b) ammonium hydroxide c) copper hydroxide d) potassium hydroxide

31) Zinc oxide dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid as well as in conc. NaOH solution. The nature of zinc oxide is 

a) acidic b) alkaline c) neutral d) amphoteric 

32) The pH of a solution is 6. The pH of the solution can be increased by adding to it :

a) few drops of conc. KOH solution b) few drops of conc. HCL c) 1 ml of water d) none of these 

33) A particular solution contains molecules and ions of a solute, so it is a 

a) strong acid b) strong base c) weak acid d) sodium chloride solution 

34) An example of a complex salt is:

a) copper sulphate b) potasium hydrogen sulphate c) iron(II ) ammonium sulphate d)  tetra amine copper (II) sulphate

35) Acid is a compound, which on dissolving in water furnishes:

a) hydrogen ion b) hydroxil ion c) hydronium ion d) both a and c 

36) An aqueous solution of hydrogen sulphide gas is a :

a) strong acid b) strong alkali c) weak alkali d) weak acid

37) Conc. nitric acid stains the skin:

a) black b) brown c) yellow d) red 

38) Which is the base amongst the following ?

a) LiOH b) NaOH c) Mg(OH)₂ d) KOH

39) Which acid is the dibasic amongst the following ?

a) sulphuric acid  b) sulphurous acid c) hydrogen sulphide solution d) all of these 

40) Which is triacidic base?

a) Almunium hydroxide  b) iron(II ) hydroxide c) ammonium hydroxide d) both a and b

41) degree of ionization of an acid X is 6%. The acid X is:

a) dilute acid  b) concentrated acid c)?weak acid  d) strong acid

42) the pH of solution is 1.2. The solution is :

a) Mildly acidic b) strongly acidic c) Mildly alkaline d) strongly alkaline

43) the pH of a colourless liquid is 13. The liquid is a :

a) very strong acid b) very strong alkali c) a weak acid d) a weak alkali 

44) A solution turns pH paper blue. The pH paper is kept within the solution and another solution X is added drop by drop. It is found that pH paper turns green. The nature of solution X is:

a) Acidic b) alkaline c) neutral d) none of these 

45) The metallic oxide which dissolved in water to form alkali is :

a) K₂O b) Al₂O₃ c) ZnO d) CuO

B) Identity the following:

1) A compound which on dissolving in water furnishes hydronium ion as the only positively charged ions.

2) An acid which furnishes 3 hydronium ions per molecules on ionization.

3) An Acid which undergoes partial dissociation, on dissolving in water.

4) A water soluble base, which furnishes hydroxyl ions.

5) The number of H⁺ ions of an acid which react completely with one molecule of base to form salt and water as only products .

6) An indicator which turns pink in alkaline solution and colourless in an acid solution.

7) A hydrated salt which loses its water of crystallization on exposure to air.

8) The phenomena due to which salt reacts with water to form parent acid and alkali.

9) A salt which absorbs moisture from air and changes into liquid state.

C) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the brackets:

1) A more volatile acid obtained, when a less volatile acid reacts with sodium nitrate is ___.( sulphuric acid/nitric acid)

2) an example of an acid derived from a mineral acid is ____.(acetic acid/citric acid/hydrochloric acid)

3) an example of a base which is not on alkali is ____.(caustic potash/ copper hydroxide/ ammonium hydroxide)

4) an example of a weak acid is____(HCl/H₂CO₃/HNO₃/H₂SO₄)

5) an example of a weak alkali solution is____.( sodium hydroxide/ potassium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide)

6) An acid having a basicity 2 is ____(acetic acid/nitric acid/carbonic acid)

7) An example of insoluble salt is____.(Na₂SO₄/CuSO₄/PbSO₄/ZnSO₄)

8) an example of a salt which produces neutral solution on hydrolysis is____.( sodium acetate /sodium carbonate/sodium chloride)

9) An example of acidic salt is____,(NaHSO₄/CH₃COONa/K₂SO₄)

10) The colour of hydrated copper sulphate is____.( light blue/black /white)

11) the example of an amphoteric hydroxide is ____.(Ca(OH)₂/ Cu(OH)₂/ Al(OH)₃/Fe(OH)₃)

12) the hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NaOH is____. (Al(OH)₃/ Fe(OH)₂/ Cu(OH)₂)

13) an oxide of a metal which is amphoteric in nature is ____. (PbO/Pb₃O₄/PbO₂)

D) Match the Column A and column B 

Column A.        Column B

1) Acidic salt   a) sodium Potassium carbonate 

2) mixed salt   b) Alum

3) complex salt  c) sodium carbonate 

4) double salt   d) sodium zincate 

5) normal salt   e) sodium hydroxide carbonate 

E) Write balanced equation for the following reactions

1) potassium hydrogen carbonate and dilute sulphuric acid.

2) copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) manganese(IV) oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid.

4) Sulphur and hot concentrated nitric acid.

5) sodium nitrate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

F) Short questions (2)

1) Differentiate between hydracids and oxy-acids. Give examples.

2) On what basis are the strength of a) acids  b) alkalis determined ?

3) differentiate between a strong acid and weak acid. Give two examples .

4) differentiate between a strong alkali and a weak alkali.

5) Explain why is the basicity of an acetic acid is one, and the acidity of magnesium hydroxide is 2.

6) How will you obtain 

a) Sulphuric acid from an acidic oxide 

b) potassium hydroxide from a basic oxide ?

7) write fully balanced chemical equations for the reaction of conc. Sulphuric acid with 

a) metallic chloride 

b) metallic nitrate, why the chloride and nitrate form their respective acids.

8) 1 molar solution of Acetic acid is a weak acid as compared to 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid? Why? Explain your answer.

9) Give one chemical property (not indicators) with a balanced equation in each which are typical of 

a) dilute acid 

b) a dilute aqueous alkalis.

10) Mention the terms defined by the following sentences:

a) A soluble base.

b) An insoluble solid formed, when two solution are mixed together.

G) 3 Marks Questions 

1) Why is sulphuric acid is a diabasic acid ? Give three reasons. Support your answer with equations, wherever possible.

2) State two chemical properties each with equations for 

a) a strong solution containing ions solution containing H⁺ (aq) ions.

b) a solution containing OH⁻ ions.

3) Show ironically why

a) phosphoric acid 

b) Sulphuric acid

c) Acetic Acid are called acids.

4) Define the following terms giving one example in each case 

a) an acid 

b) A base 

c) An acid salt.

5) Zinc metal and Aluminium metal are amphoteric in nature. What do you understand by the statement ? Support your answer by writing fully balanced chemical equations.

6) Solution A is a strong acid

    Solution B is a weak acid 

    Solution C is a strong alkali 

a) which solution contains soluble molecules in addition to water molecules 

b) which solution will give a gelatinous white precipitate with zinc sulphate solution ? The precipitate disappears when an excess of the solution is added.

c) Which solution could be a solution of glacial Acetic Acid ?

d) Give an example of a solution which is a weak alkali.

7) What is observed when :

a) Hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through the lead acetate solution ?

b) Neutral litmus solution is added to sodium hydrogen carbonate solution ?

c) a small piece of iron is placed in copper sulphate solution ?

8) a) Acids dissolve in water to produce positively charged ions. Draw the structure of these positive ions. 

b) Explain , why carbon tetrachloride does not dissolve in water.

c) Elements Q and S react together to form an ionic compound. Under normal conditions , which physical state will the compound QS exist in .

d) can Q and S, both be metals ? justify your answer.

9) Write the observations and balanced equation for the following reaction:

a) sodium hydroxide is added drop by drop, till in excess, in a solution of zinc sulphate.

b) ammonium hydroxide is added first in small quantity and then excess to a solution of copper sulphate.

c) Excess of ammonium hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by the action of hydrochloric acid in silver nitrate.

10) Starting with copper chips and concentrated nitric acid, describe briefly how you can prepare black copper oxide.

11) For each of the conversion A, B, C, D and E in the scheme below, state briefly in words, how the conversions can be carried out.

12) Starting from potassium hydroxide and nitric acid, how will you prepare crystals of potassium nitrate ?

13) Briefly describe, how will you obtain crystal of zinc sulphate starting from zinc and dilute sulphuric acid.

14)  Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.

a) Zinc sulphate solution and zinc chloride solution.

b) iron(II ) chloride solution and iron(III ) chloride solution.

c) Calcium nitrate solution and calcium chloride solution.

15) A solution M turns blue litmus red while another solution N turns red litmus blue. In the above context answer the following questions.

a) What does M must contain?

b) What does N must contain?

c) When M and N are mixed together, name one of the product formed .

d) when M and N are mixed together, name the other products formed.

e) If a piece of magnesium was put in to a solution M, name the gas evolved.

16) The pH value of 3 solution P, Q, R are the given in the table.

Solution           pH value 

P.                       12

Q                        2

R                        7

Answer the followings:

a) Which solution will have no effect on litmus solution?

b) Which solution will liberate CO₂ when reacted with sodium carbonate?

c) Which solution will turn red litmus blue?

d) Which solution will turn blue litmus red?

e) Which solution is also known as alkali 

17) Answer the following:

a) The pH of a solution S is 10. What is nature of solution ?

b) If the pH of solution is to be the increased name the compound we should add to it.

c) Name the kind of particles present in the solution of the sodium chloride.

d) Name kind of particles present in the solution of carbonic acid.

e) Name kind of particles present in the glucose solution.

18) You are provided with copper carbonate and concentrated sulphuric acid. How will you proceed to prepare hydrated crystals of copper sulphate ?

19) You are required to prepare lead sulphate from lead carbonate. Briefly explain how will you proceed.

20) We cannot prepare calcium sulphate by treating marble chips with dilute sulphuric acid. Outline the procedure to prepare calcium sulphate from marble chips.

PERIODIC PROPERTIES AND VARIATIONS OF PROPERTIES (PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL)

A) FILL IN THE BLANKS :

1) The serial number of an element in the pieriodic Table is also its____. (Atomic number /mass number ).

2) The metallic character_____in a Group as one moves from top to bottom. (Increases/decreases)

3) The metallic character____ in a Period as one moves from left to right. (Increases/decreases)

4) _____is the most active nonmetal.(Chlorine/ Iodine)

5) _____is the most active metal.(Magnesium/ sodium)

6) An increase in nuclear charge____ the tendency of an atom to accept electrons. (Increases/ decreases)

7) The atomic size____as one moves from left to right across a Period.(Increases/ decreases)

8) The element in Group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature is____. (F/ Cl/ Br)

9) Nuclear charge of an atom is the____(negative/positive) charge on the nucleus of an atom, equivalent to the atomic____(numbers/mass) of an atom.

10) Atomic size of neon is_____than the atomic size of fluorine.(More/ less)

11) With increase in nuclear charge the nuclear attraction for outer electron____(increasees/ decreases), Hence ionisation potential____(increases/ decreases). 

12) If an element has one electron in its outermost shell. Then it is likely to be____. (Non metallic/ metallic)

13) The Properties of elements are periodic functions of their____. (Atomic numbers/ mass numbers)

14) The element below sodium in the same Group would be expected to have a___. (Lower / higher) electronegativity than sodium and the element above chlorine would be expected to have a_____(lower / higher) ionisation potential than chlorine.

15) On moving from left to right in a given Period, the number of shells___. (Remains the same/ increases/ decreases)

16) On moving down a Group, the number of valence electrons_____( remains the same/ increase/ decreases)

B) CHOOSE CORRECT OPTION:

1) The chemical properties of an element depends on its:

a) atomic mass

b) atomic number

c) atomic energy

d) atomic volume

2) Total number of vertical columns (Groups) in the Long Form of the Periodic Table is :

a) 8 b) 18 c) 17 d) 16

3) The element having the lowest ionisation potential in period 3 is:

a) Na b) K c) Mg d) A

4) The number of elements present in Period 3 is :

a) 6 b) 32 c) 18 d) 8

5) On going down a Group, the number of valence electrons.

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

6) The number of Periods in the Long Form of Periodic Table is:

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

7) On moving down a Group, the size of atoms :

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

8) Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius ?

a) Cl⁻ b) K⁺ c) S²⁻ d) Ca²⁺

9) On moving from left to right in a Period the metallic character of elements:

a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

10) The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is :

a) C > B > Be > Li

b) C > Be > B > Ki

c) B > C > Be > Li

d) Be > Li > B > C

11) Which halogen has the highest electron affinity ?

a) F b) Cl c) Be d) I

12) The most electronegative element in the Period Table is:

a) N b) O c) Cl d) F

13) Which has the smallest size?

a) Na⁺ b) Al³⁺ c) Mg²⁺ d) P⁵⁺

14) Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation potential in the Periodic Table?

a) F > O > N > C

b) O > F > N > C

c) O > N > F > C

d) C > N > O > F

15) The electron affinity for noble gases is likely to be:

a) high b) small c) zero d) Positive

16) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?

a) F b) O c) O⁻ d) Na⁺

17) The size of a positive ion is:

a) more than its atom.

b) less than its atom

c) equal to its atom

d) none of the above

18) Which one of the following is correct order of the size ?

a) I > I⁻> I⁺ 

b) I > I⁺> I⁻   

c) I⁺ > I⁻> I   

d) I⁻ > I > I⁺ 

19)The size of chloride ion (Cl⁻) is

a) smaller than chlorine atom

b) bigger than chlorine atom

c) equal to that of chlorine atom

d) none of the above

20) The ionic radii of N³⁻ , O²⁻ , F⁻ and Na⁺ follow the order

a) N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺

b) N³⁻ > Na⁺ > O²⁻ > F⁻  

c) Na⁺> O²⁻ > N³⁻ > F⁻  

d) O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > N³⁻

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The element present in the first Period.       

2) The biggest atom in the third Period.   

3) A solid halogen.      

4) The smallest element of third Period.   

5) The family of elements to which chlorine belongs.  

6) The family of elements to which sodium belongs.     

7) The family of elements to which argon and neon belongs.     

8) Least electronegative element of halogen family.   

9) A non metal which has three electrons in its outermost shell. 

10) The smallest atom in the third Period.       

11) The least reactive elements in Group IA.   

12) The most metallic element in the third Period.   

13) The most nonmetallic element in the third Period.  

14) The element which is most electronegative in the third Period.   

15) A greenish yellow gas other than chlorine.     

16) The most abundant halide salt.      

17) The element which has the highest ionisation potential.   

18) The element of third Period which has least ionisation potential.   

19) The most electronegative element of second period.   

20) An element in period 3 with electronegativity 3.0.    

21) The element with the least ionisation potential in the 2nd period.       

22) The element which has the highest electron affinity in the third Period.    

23) The noble gas having an electronic configuration 2,8,8. 

24) The valency of elements in Group I.    

25) An element of group VIIA, solid at room temperature.      

D) TRUE/FALSE

1) The electron present in the outermost shell are called valence electrons.   

2) In a group, atomic and ionic radii decrease from top to bottom due to increase in the number of shells.     

3) The electron affinity of elements increases in a group from top to bottom and decreases along a Period from left to right.      

4) The amount of energy required to remove a loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated atom is called ionisation potential.      

5) Electron affinity is the property of an atom to attract electrons towards itself, when combined to form a compound.    

6) Lithium resembles radium and potassium in electropositive character and univalency.      

7) The element in a Group have consecutive atomic Numbers.      

8) On going down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table, the metallic character of elements increases.      

9) The tendency of an atom of an element to donate or lose electrons is called electropositivity.           

10) Iron is a non-metal.          

E) DEFINE:

1) Periods in Periodic table

2) Group in Periodic table

3) Periodicity

E) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:

1) What are Periods ?

2) How many electrones are present in the valency shell of the element with the atomic number 18 ?

3) Explain why electron affinity of an atoms increases from left to right along a Period in the Modern Periodic Table.

3) What happens in the number of valence electrons in the atoms of elements as we go down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

4) From amongst Be, B, and C, choose the element with the highest ionisation potential.

5) What is similar in the electronic structure of Li, Na, and K ?

6) Which of the following elements are in the same Group of the Periodic table ? Magnesium, Nitrogen, Beryllium, Sulphur 

7) Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original Periodic table ?

8) State the Periodic law on which Mendeleev's Periodic table was based ?

9) In the Long Form of the Periodic Table. the elements are arranged according to their mass numbers. Is this statement correct ? if not, correct it.

10) How could the atomic radius of a noblw gas compered with other elements in a Period ?

11) What similarity do halogen show in their molecular state ?

12) Why is ionization potential of O less that of N ?

13) Explain why the elements with low ionisation potential exhibit metallic properties.

14) Account for the difference in size of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ as Fe²⁺ = 0.76 A° and Fe³⁺ = 0.64 A°.

15) Give the formula of one species positively charged and one negativity charged that will be iso-electronic with Ne.

16) Mg²⁺ ion is smaller than O³ ion  althrough both are iso-electronic. Explain .

17) What is the probable formula of the oxide of silicon ? (Silicon occurs below carbon in the Periodic Table)

18) What would you expect the formula of a compared of hydrogen with an element I to be ? ( use I as the symbol of the element.)

19) How do the nature of oxides of the elements change on moving from top to bottom in a Group of the Periodic Table?

Give example.

20) What is the common feature of the electronic configuration of the elements at the end of Period 2 and Period 3 ?

21) if an element is in group 7(or group 7A). is it likely to be metallic or nonmetallic in character ?

22) What is meant by a group in a Periodic Table ?

23) theelectronegativities of the elements in period 3 of the Periodic Table are as follows with elements arranged in alphabetical order:

Al    Cl     Mg     Na      P      S       Si

1.5  3.0   1.2    0.9     2.1   2.5    1.8 

Arrange the elements in the order in which they occur in the Periodic Table from left to right. ( The group 1 element first, followed by the group 2 element and so on, up to Group 7.)

24) Predict the Group of an element X if its atomic number is 16?

10) Select the correct order of radii of three species Ca, Ca⁺ and Ca²⁺

a) Ca > Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺

b) Ca²⁺ > Ca⁺ > Ca

c) Ca⁺ > Ca > Ca²⁺ 

d) Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Ca

Assign suitable reason.

11) Electron affinities of two elements A and B are as follows:

A=3.79 eV and B= 3.56 eV 

Which of them will ionise more easily and why ?

12) How does the number of valence electrons vary on moving from left to right:

a) in the first Period of the Periodic Table?

b) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

c) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

13) The elements lithium, sodium and potassium were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties.

a) What are those similar properties

b) What is the usual name of this Group or family.?

14) Which is larger, Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why?

15) Chlorine , bromine and iodine elements were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties:

a) What are those similar properties ?

b) What is the common name of this Group or family ?

16) In the following set of elements, one element does not belong to the set. Select this element.  Give reason in support of your answer.

Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium, Beryllium .

17) Consider the following elements: Na, Ca, Al, K, Mg, Li

a) Which of these elements belongs to the same Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) Which of these elements belongs to the same Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

18) What is the cause of periodicity of elements in the Periodic Table?

19) What are the following Groups known as?

a) Group IA

b) Group VIIA

c) Group Zero  

20) How did the following properties vary in a Period, say Period 3 ?

a) Atomic size

b) Metallic character

c) Non-metallic character

d) Ionisation potential 

e) Electron affinity 

f) Electronegativity

21) a) Name the elements of Period 3.

b) Which element in Period three is likely to react most violently with chlorine.

c) Of the 8 elements in Period 3, which is likely to form a compound of the formula XCl₃  with chlorine.

22) Match the following 

Column A 

a) Proton 

b) Sodium 

c) Barium 

d) Chlorine 

e) Electron

f)  Completed shell 

Column B 

i) An alkaline earth metal 

ii) halogen 

iii) noble gas 

iv) An alkaline metal 

v) Responsible for nuclear charge

vi) Occupied subshell 

23) Among the elements of the second Period (Li to Ne), pick out the element.

a) with the largest atomic size.

b) with the highest ionisation potential.

c) with highest electron affinity.

d) With highest electronegativity.

e) which is the most reactive metal.

f) which is the most reactive nonmetal.

24)a) How many Groups and Periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) On what basis is an element placed in a particular Period in a Group ?

c) The electronic configuration of three elements A, B and C are as follows:

A-- 2   8    18    18     8    1

B-- 2   8    18    18     7

C-- 2   8    18.   32    18   8

Find the respective Period and Group to which each of them belongs.

25) For each of the following pairs, predict which one has a greater ionization potential and greater electron affinity ?

a) I, I⁻

b) B, C

c) Li, Li⁺

26) What is the number of elements in:

a)  first Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) 2nd Period of the Modern Periodic Table  ?

c) 3rd Period of the Modern Periodic Table?

27) a) What are alkali metals ?

b) In which Group and Sub groups are they are placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why do they not occur free in nature?

28) This question refery to the elements of the Periodic Table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some of the elements are shown by letters, but the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

3    4    5    6    7    8    9    10 

A    B    C   D    E    F    G    H 

11 12  13  14  15  16  17  18 

 I     J     K    L    M   N    O  P 

Which of these elements:

a) are noble gases ?

b) are halogens ?

c) are alkali metals ?

d) are elements with valency 4?

29) An element X belongs to Period 3 and Group II of the Periodic Table . State :

a) the number of valence electrons .

b) valency of the element.

c) is it metal or nonmetal.

d) the name of the element. 

30) The atoms A and B have electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) and  (2,6) respectivaly.

a) to which Period do A and B belong ?

b) to which group do A and B belong ?

c) What are the valencies of A and B with respect to hydrogen ?

d) What is the formula of the compound of A and B ? Is the compound ionic or covalent in nature ?

31) An element X belongs to Period 2 and another element Y belongs to Group 15 of the Periodic Table.

a) What is the number of valence electrons in X ,?

b) What is Valency of X ?

c) What is the number of valence electrons in Y ?

d) What is the valency of Y?

32) In any vertical column of elements in the sub group A of the Periodic Table , as you go from top to bottom :

a) the elements become ____metallic (less /more)

b) the number of electronic shells ____ (increases/decreases)

c) The ionization potential ______. (decreases/ increases)

d) the electronegativity_______ (decreases/ increases).

33) a) What are noble gases ?

b) What is the speciality of the their outermost shells ?

c) in which group are they placed  ?

d) why is that Group referred to as Zero Group  ?

e) why are they referred to as inert gases ?

34) a) What are halogens ?

b) in which Group and Sub groups are they placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why are they called halogens ?

e) why do they not occur free nature ?

35) Arrange the elements of Group VIIA according to the given conditions:

a) increasing order of atomic size.

b) Increasing non metallic character.

c) increasing ionization potential.

d) increasing electron affinity.

e) decreasing electronegativity .

36) The electronic configuration of an elements T is 2, 8, 7.

a) What is the Group number of T ?

b) What is the Period number of T ?

c) How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T ?

d) What is the valency of T ?

e) is it a metal or nonmetal ?

37) Arrange the following elements as per the guidelines in brackets.

a) Cl, Mg, Na, P( in increasing order of atomic size)

b) Al, Cl, Na, S ( in increasing order of ionization potential)

c) Ar, He, Ne (in decreasing order of number of electronics shells).

d) C, Li, F, N, (in increasing order of electronegativity)

e) C, F, Li, O, (in increasing order of electron affinity)

38) The table given below shows the mass number and the number of neutrons in 4 elements -- P,Q, R, S

Elements:              P    Q    R     S 

Mass number:     12   20  23   35

No of neutrons:    6    10  12   18

a) Write down the atomic number of S.

b) Write down the electronic configuration of S.

c) To which Group S belongs ?

d) To  which Period S belongs ?

e) What will be the nature (ionic or covalent) of the compound formed by 

i) R and S

ii) P and S

39) The position of three elements X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table is as shown below:

Group 16     Group 17

     ---                   X

     ----                -----

      Y                   Z

a) What will be the valency of Z ?

b) What is the name of the family to which element Z  belongs ?

c) State whether Z is a metal or nonmetal.

d) will Z be larger or smaller than Y ?

e) State whether Z is more or less reactive than X.

40) Fill in the blanks:

a) Group 3A elements have____ electrons in their outermost shells.

b) Nitrogen has ____electrons in its outermost shell.

c) Group zero elements have_____ electrons in their outermost shells except ____.

d) The outermost shell electrons are also known as____ electrons.

e) When an atom of magnesium unites with another to form a compound. ____electrons of magnesium are primarily involved.

41) Question (a) to (e) refer to change in the properties of elements on moving left to right across a Period of the Periodic Table . For each property, choose the letter corresponding to the correct answer from choices (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

a) The non metallic character of the element:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remain the same iv) depends on the Period 

b) The electronegativity :

i) depends on the member of valence electrons.

ii) remains the same

iii) decreases  iv) increases 

c) The ionization potential 

i) goes up and down 

ii) decreases iii) increases iv) remains the same 

d) The atomic size:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remains the same iv) sometimes increasees and sometimes decreases 

e) The electron affinity of the elements in Group 1 to 7;

i) goes up and then down 

ii) decreases and then increases

iii( increases  iv) decreases 

F) REASON BEHIND:

1) Sodium is referred to as a normal element..

2) Sodium and potassium are placed in Group I.

3) Noble gases have zero electron affinity values. Explain ?

4) Why is larger Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why ?

5) Why is the electron affinity for F Less than that of Cl?

6) Why electron affinity of halogen is comparatively high. Give reason.

7) Ionisation potential of alkali metals is comparatively low.

8) Electronegativity of chlorine is higher than that of sulphur.  Why ?

9) Sodium and potassium are called alkali metals . Why ?

10) Why is chlorine more reactive than bromin ?

11) Why Potassium is more reactive than sodium.

________________

A) Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative out of brackets)

1) Carbon dioxide is necessary for___.(respiration/photosynthesis)    

2) Splitting of water results in the release of___. (oxygen/water).      

3) Animal nutrition is____ (autotrophic) heterotrophic).      

4) Chlorophyll has___ in the middle of ring. (nitrogen/magnesium).    

5) The first step of photosynthesis is dependent upon light and is called the___ while the second step is independent of light and is called the____ (light reaction/dark reaction).    

6) ____ are regarded as complete photosynthetic units of plants.(nuclei/chloroplast). 

7) RuDP stands for__(adenosine triphosphate/ribulose diphosphate).   

8) Each granum consists of disc shaped membranous sacs called ____(chloroplast/thylakoids).    

9) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is known as___ (calvin cycle/Haber cycle).    

10) Chlorophyll can be extracted from the leaves using ____. (Acetone/distilled water).   

11) A chemical which absorbs carbon dioxide is___.( sodium chloride/sodium hydroxide).   

12) All the animals would die on the earth if there was no____. (chlorophyll/sodium). 

13) Light reaction takes place in the____ of chloroplast. (grana/stroma).  

14) Starch can be tested by____. (Iodine/ hydrochloric acid). 

B) Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternatives out of those given in the list :

(Quantasome, water, yellow, 40°C, producers, dark reaction, photosynthesis, oxygen, stroma, light reaction, chloroplasts, 2-10 mm, grana)

1) the diameter of the chloroplast is in the range of ______.  

2) During the photosynthesis____ convert the physical energy of light into chemical energy which is stored up in ATP.    

3) Quantasome is the basic unit of___. 

4) Xanthophyll is ___ coloured pigment.      

5) The larger unlike particles of thylakoid membrane are called as ____.    

6) Grana of chlorophyll is concerned with_____.     

7) Photosynthesis stops at a temperature above ____.     

8) The source of oxygen released in photosynthesis is_____.   

9) All food chains start with a plant because they are _____.       

10) A chloroplast consists of a colourless matrix known as___ and disc-like green structures called_____.       

11) _____ is never a limiting factor for photosynthesis.    

12) Stroma chlorophyll is concerned with ______.     

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

 

1) The step of photosynthesis which can take place both in the presence and absence of light.     

2) The substance from which oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis.   

3) The first important stable product formed during carbon fixation.  

4) The organelles that bind the radiant energy in the molecules of organic compounds.      

5) The most abundant pigment found on the earth.       

6) The process by which carbohydrates and synthesized by plants from carbon dioxide and water with the help of Chlorophyll and light

 OR

The process by which the green plants prepare their food.      

7) The substance which gets removed from the leaf when a plant is kept in dark for a long period.     

8) The technical term used for the conversion of light energy into high potential chemical energy viz., ATP during photosynthesis.      

OR

 The process of conversion of ADP to ATP during the first phase of photosynthesis.

9) The colour in which the rate of photosynthesis.    

10) A solvent for chlorophyll.     

11) The colour of rays in which the rate of photosynthesis is highest next to red.      

12) The chemical reaction in which oxygen is given out.     

13) Form of energy which is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.      

14) The chemical that absorbs carbon dioxide during the dark reaction.     

15) Any two plants you have seen which do not perform photosynthesis.       

16) The part of chloroplast where light reaction takes place.    

17) Light-induced reaction which leads to splitting of water.    

18) A pigment in leaves which mainly absorbs red and blue light.       

19) The plastids found in the cells of yellow coloured petals.      

20) The energy currency of cell.       

21) The part of the chloroplast where the dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place.

OR

 The ground substance present in a chloroplast.       

22) The structure where photophosphorylation test place.       

D) Match the following:

COLUMN-I

1) autotrophs

2) photolysis

3) bacteria fungi 

4) stomata closed

5) by product the photosynthesis

6) the grana

7) the stroma

COLUMN-II

a) is the place for light reaction of photosynthesis.

b) is the place of dark reaction light reaction of photosynthesis.

c) light reaction.

d) during night.

e) green plants.

f) oxygen

g) decomposers

E) MATCH THE COLUMN

1) oxygen and water.

2) glucose (sugar)

3) chloroplast

4) sunlight

5) Carbon dioxide and water.

6) Cells in the leaf.

7) grana.

COLUMN-II

a) stimulated by the light.

b) machinery

c) raw materials

d) by products

e) work rooms

f) end product

g) power

F) SHORT QUESTIONS:

1) Why is chlorophyll called the wonder pigment ?

2) Mention any two points in which photosynthesis and respiration in plants are opposite to each other..

3) State three conditions required for photosynthesis.

4) What is the source of oxygen release in photosynthesis: carbon dioxide or water.

5) What is thylakoid ? .

6) What does granum consist of ?

7) Do the plants needs oxygen ? If so what is its source?

8) What is the basic role of light in photosynthesis?

9) Photosynthesis is divided into two groups light and dark reactions. In which of these two, water is split?

10) What happens to chlorophyll when plants are kept in dark ?.

11) What initiates light reaction ?

12) Mention the sites of light and the dark reactions.

13) What Chemicals do you use to remove Carbon dioxide from inside a flask in certain experiment on photosynthesis ?

14) Name the two sets of reaction in photosynthesis process.

15) Name the two men events of dark reaction.

16) Explain why chlorophyll appear green.

17) Why is not possible to demonstrate respiration, in a green plant kept in the sunlight.

18) What is photolysis of water?

19) Photosynthesis is called a light dependent process. Explain.

20) What is the immediate product of photosynthesis.

21) Why chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis?

22) How do raw materials reach to the plant cells ?

23) Chloroplasts are called energy converters. Explain.

24) What is the role of ATP in a biosystem.

25) Why is ATP necessary for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

26) State four limiting factors of photosynthesis.

27) Chloroplasts are regarded as complete photosynthetic units of a plant. Explain?

28) What is the pathway of energy flow from sun to the organisms ?

29) What is photosynthesis ?

30) Write the main component of biosphere.

31) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to hexose sugar. From where do 

a) the energy

b) the hydrogen, for this process come ?

32) Most leaves have a shiny, more green upper surface than the lower one. why ?

33) Is it true that no life could exist on earth in the absence of photosynthesis?

34) Why is necessary to place a plant in dark before starting an experiment on photosynthesis

OR

 Why is it important to destarch a plant before starting any experiment on photosynthesis ?

35) What happens to light energy during photosynthesis?

36) What is the by product of photosynthesis?

37) What is the first sugar phosphate produced as a result of photosynthesis?

38) Expand the following abbreviation:

a) ATP      

b) NADP.        

c) ADP.    

d) PGA.        

e) PGAL.        

39) State one main function of palisade cells.

40) Write the odd one out and give reason for your answer:

a) glycolysis, photosynthesis, photolysis, carbon fixation

b) Oxaloacetic Acid, Pyruvic acid, citric acid, Alpha- ketoglutaric acid.

41) Explain each of the part of the term cyclic photoshoperization.

Cyclic -- 

Photo--- 

Phosphorylation--- 

42) Explain briefly how during the day transpiration and photosynthesis are interlinked.

43) State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statements by changing the first or last word only.

a) photosynthesis occurs in all the cells of a plant.

.b) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is light independent.    

44) Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word/words for the fourth place.

a) Thylakoid: chloroplast : Cristae: ?       

45) Given below is a set of 5 terms. Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be logical sequence.

 water molecule, oxygen, grana, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, photons.

46) What is photophosphorylation. 

47) Give the exact location and one function of Thylakoid.

47) State whether the following statement is true or false, write the correct statement by changing the first word only.

   Respiration is the only biological process in which oxygen is produced.

48) Explain the term photolysis.

49) Give reason: green leaves are thin and broad.

50) Given below is set of 5 terms. Without changing the first term, rearrange the remaining four, so as to be in logical sequence as per the direction given in bracket)

  Destarched Plant, iodine added, wadhed in water, a leaf boiled in alcohol, placed in sunlight. (testing for presence of starch)

51) State whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE. If false rewrite the correct form of the statement by only changing the last word of the statement.

   Plant that manufacture their own food are termed heterotrophs.

52) Given below is an incomplete explanation of certain biological process/terms where a key word has been left out. Rewrite the completed explanation by inserting the key word in the space indicated by ' '.

 Photolysis is the splitting of water molecules into Hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions in the presence of ' ' and light.

53) Briefly explain the following term:

Destarched plant.

54) Define:

a) light reaction

b) dark reaction

c) Quantum

55) Given below 6 sets, with 4 terms in each. In each set, one term is odd and cannot be grouped into the category to which the other three belong. Identity the odd one in each set and name the category to which the remaining three belongs.

    Set odd one category

a) Fructose, sucrose, glucose, calcium.

b) Golgi bodies, leucoplast, nucleus, cambium.

c) chlorenchyma, cartilage, parenchyma, collenchyma.

d) goitre, dwarfism, acromegaly, cataract.

e) sneezing, coughing, typing, blinking.

f) ADH, TSH, NADP, ACTH.

56) Differentiate between:

a) photosynthesis/respiration

b) stroma/grana

c) light reaction/dark reaction

57) Multiple Choice Questions:

a) A molecule broken down during the light reaction photosynthesis :

i) oxygen ii) chlorophyll iii) water iv) carbon dioxide 

b) A molecule which is reduced during the dark stage of photosynthesis

i) water ii) carbon dioxide iii) oxygen iv) chlorophyll 

c) A light absorbing pigment:

i) oxygen ii) carbon dioxide iii) water iv) chlorophyll 

d) A gas given off by chloroplasts in sunlight:

i) oxygen ii) water iii) carbon dioxide iv) chlorophyll

e) An energy -rich molecule formed by photosynthesis:

i) oxygen ii) carbon dioxide iii) water iv) glucose 

f) The number of water molecules required in the chemical reactions to produce one molecule of glucose during photosynthesis is : 

i) eighteen ii) six iii) twelve iv) twenty-four

g) A plant is kept in a dark cupboard for about 48 hours before conducting an experiment on photosynthesis to :

i) remove chlorophyll from the leaves.

ii) remove starch from the plant.

iii) ensure that no photosynthesis occurs.

iv) ensure that the leaves are free from starch.

h) If the rate of respiration becomes more than the rate of photosynthesis, plant will:

i) continue to live, but will not be able to store food 

ii) be killed instantly.

iii) grow more vigerously because more energy will be available.

iv) stop growing and gradually die of starvation.

i) which one of these reactions occurs during photosynthesis ?

i) carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised

ii) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidized.

iii) carbon dioxide and water are both oxidised.

iv) carbon dioxide and water are both reduced.

j) all of the following are likely to decrease the rate photosynthesis except:

i) low carbon dioxide concentration.

ii) small surface area of leaves

iii) decreased intensity of light

iv) low oxygen concentration.

QUESTIONS BASED ON DIAGRAMS

1) The diagram given below shows the inside of a leaf.

a)  Name two types of cell layers which carry out photosynthesis.

b) Which type of cell will provide the most food ? Give a reason for your answer.

c) Name the part of the leaf which carries food and water.

2) A plant is destarched by keeping it in dark for 48 hours and then setup as shown in figure. The conical flask is made completely airtight by smearing the split cork with vaseline or wax. The apparatus is kept in sunlight. After 7 hour, the leaves are detached in A and B and tested for starch .

a) What happens to the leaves present in A and B ?

b) Why is KOH kept in the flask A?

c) Write the aim of the experiment.

3) Two healthy green plants were placed in the dark for 24 hours. They were then setup at shown in the figure and left for 4 hours. Then a leaf was taken from each plant and the chlorophyll was removed from the leaves.

a) How is the chlorophyll removed ?

b) What is the next in the final step in the experiment ?

c) What would be the result on the final step ?

d) Why is it necessary to grease the glass sheet ?

e) What hypothesis is being tested in this experiment ?

f) Which of the two plants would serve as the control ?

4) Introduction in an experiment read: Destarche the green potted plant. Cover a portion of leafs with steep or blood paper and keep it in sunlight for 6 hours the presence of starch in the leaf with a strip of black paper and keep in sunlight for 6 hours. Test the presence of starch in the leaf.

a) What is the aim of the experiment ?

b) How will you proceed for testing starch ?

c) What will happen if the plant is not destarched ?

5) The diagram given below shows how carbon compounds are recycled.

a) Name the process shown by the arrows B, C, D and E.

b) Name a type of organism you expect to be named in box A.

c) State one other way in which the amount of carbon dioxide can be increased .

6) Figure represents an experiment performed to demonstrate a particular aspect of photosynthesis. The apparatus was kept in sunlight for almost the whole day. The numeral 1 represents a certain condition inside the flask and the numeral 2 represents a chemical responsible for this condition.

a) What is the object of the experiment ?

b) What is the special condition inside the flask? 

c) What is the chemical substance numbered 2 ?

d) In what way will three leaves (A, B and C) differ at the end of the experiment, when tested with iodine solution?

e) Name the process which is reverse of photosynthesis in terms of the end products.

f) Write the overall chemical equation for the process named above in subsection (e).

7) A potted destarched plant was taken in order to prove that light is in necessary for photosynthesis

a) What is meant by destarched plant ? How can it be destarched ?

b) Using the destarched plant describe step how will you would proceed to prove that in the absence of light the leaf cannot manufacture starch.

8) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of the internal structure of an organelle found in a plant cell. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow ?

a) Identify the organelle.

b) Name the psychological process occurring in this organelle.

c) Mention one way in which this process is beneficial to man.

d) Name the phases of the process occurring in the part labelled 1 and 2.

e) A chemical substance in NADP plays an active part in one of the phases. Give the expanded form of NADP and state its role in the above process.

f) Represent the psychological process mentioned in (b) above in the form of a chemical equation.

9) A well-watered healthy potted plant with variegated leaves was kept in darkness for about 24 hours. It was then setup as shown in the diagram and exposed to light for about 12 hours. At the end of the time leaf X and leaf Y were tested for starch. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.

a) Why was the plant initially kept in darkness for 24 hours ?

b) What is the function of sodium hydroxide solution in the flask ?

c) Select the correct leaf from the five available choices shown in the diagram as A, B, C, D and E. Rewrite the correct answer by filling in the appropriate letter for the questions that follow:

i) After the starch test, leave X would look like ______.

ii) After the starch test, leaf Y would look like____.

d) The experiment with leaf Y shows that photosynthesis requires the presence of certain factors. Mention any one factor.

10)  The following diagram is setup to demonstrate an experiment: pondweed was placed in 5 water-filled tubes. The experiment was setup as shown in the diagram. The tubes were then left for 24 hours.

Write the correct answer out of the 5 available choices given under each question :

A) In which tube would you expect the greatest increase in dry weight of the pondweed ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 d) 5 

B) In which tube would you expect to find the plant with the least amount of starch ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 

C) The tube in which most oxygen will be found is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

D) The tube in which least carbon dioxide will be found is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

E) The tube in which the plant would survive for the shortest length of time is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

11) The following diagrams refers to an experiment in which the apparatus was setup with the light source 10cm away from the plant. After 15 minutes the number of bubbles evelved per minute from the cut stem was recorded. The light source was moved to 20cm away from the plant, left for 15 minutes and the number of bubbles evolved per minute was again recorded. The experiment was repeated with the light source at distances of 40, 60, 80 and 100cm away from the plant. The results obtained were recorded on the graph.

Select the correct answer out of the available choices given under each question:

A) From the graph it seems likely that the rate of bubbling per minute at 50cm would have been:

a) 2.0  b) 2.5  c) 3.0 d) 3.5  e) 4.0

B) The gas product by the plant during the experiment was:

a) air b) oxygen c) carbon dioxide d) nitrogen  e) hydrogen 

C) The gas collected comes due to breakdown of :

a) glucose b) starch  c) water d) air  e) ATP

D) if Ice cubes were added to the water, the rate of bubble formation would :

a) stay the same.

b) increase because more water is added.

c) decrease because the temperature drops.

d) decrease because water freezes.

e) cannot tell from the information given.

E) if some sodium bicarbonate is added to the water, the rate of bubble formation:

a) increases because more respiration occurs.

b) increases because more Photosynthesis occurs.

c) increases because the gas becomes less soluble.

d) decreases because carbon dioxide acts as a limiting factor.

e) decreases because respiration decreases.

12)a) Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of the chloroplast.

b) List the events taking place in the photochemical phase of photosynthesis.

c) if you are planning an experiment to show the effect of light on photosynthesis.

     i) Will you select white light or green light ? justify your answer.

     ii) Why would you select a destarched plant ?

CELL DIVISION 

Review

* Every organism begins its life as a single cell. This cell divides repeatedly to produce a cluster of cells. These cells form tissues and organs to perform different activities of life. This cell division essential for growth.

* There is always a wear and tear of cells during the normal body functions. These cells are replaced by new cells which are formed through division of their parent cells. Thus, cell division is needed for replacement of old cells.

* Cell division is also essential for repair of injuries and reproduction.

* There are two types of cell division-- Mitosis and Meiosis.

* In mitosis, two identical cells are produced by the division of one parent cell. Each daughter cell contains the same number of chromosomes as that of the parent cell.

* Mitosis is the cell division which occurs in 4 phases namely prophase, Metaphase, anaphase and telophase.

*  In prophase, the chromosomes become short and thick which move towards the equator of the cell. Each chromosomes gets duplicated to form two chromatids.

* In Metaphase, the chromosomes arrange themselves on the equatorial plane. Each chromosomes gets attached to spindle fibre by centromere.

* In anaphase, the centrosome divide and the two sister chromatides of each chromosome separate are drawn apart towards opposite poles.

* Telophase is the last phase in which the chromatid becomes thinner and the nuclear membrane reappears. Nucleolus also reappears in each daughter nucleus.

* Mitosis is followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). At the end of telophase, a furrow appears in the cell membrane at the middle, which depends and finally splits the cytoplasm into two, thus producing two new cells.

* Meiosis is the kind of cell division that produces the sex cells or the gametes. In this division, the number of chromosomes in the cell is halved.

* The meiosis is also called reduction cell division since the four daughter cells formed have half the number of chromosomes than the mother cell.

* There are two divisions of meiosis -- meiosis I (reduction division) and meiosis II (equational division

SECTION - I (40 Marks)

1) Name the following:

a) Opening on the stem through which transpiration occurs.  

b) The organ in man concerned with maintaining water balance in the body.      

c) The photosensitive pigment present in the 'rod' cells in the retina. 

2) Select the correct answer out of the four available choices given under question. Rewrite the correct answer from I to VII:

I. Osmosis involvs diffusion of:

i) suspended particles from lower to higher concentration.

ii) suspended particles from higher to lower concentration.

iii) water from the more concentrated solution to the less concentrated solution.

iv) water from the less concentrated solution to the more concentrated solution.  

II . Transpiration pull will be maximum under which of the following conditions :

i) open stomata, dry atmosphere and moist soil ?

ii) Open stomata, high humid atmosphere and well irrigated soil ?

iii) open stomata, high humid atmosphere and dry soil ?

iv) closed stomata, dry atmosphere and dry soil?        

III. if the rate of respiration becomes more than the rate of the photosynthesis, plants will 

i) continue to live, but will not be able to stored food.

ii) be killed instantly.

iii) grow more vigorously because more energy will be available.

iv) stop growing and gradually die of starvation.    

IV. Which one of these reactions occur during photosynthesis :

i) carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised ?

ii) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidised ?

iii) carbon dioxide and water are both oxidised?

iv) carbon dioxide and water are both reduced?     

V. Excretion commonly involves :

i) removal of all bi-products during catabolism.

ii) removal of by-products doing anabolism.

iii) removal of nitrogenous waste.

iv) all of the above . 

VI. In mammals, the corpus callosum connects:

i) the two optic lobes.

ii) the two cerebral hemispheres.

iii) the cerebrum of the cerebellum.

iv) the pons to the medulla oblongota.      

VII. Which one of the following is the route that a sperm follows when it leaves the testis of a mammal :

i) vas deferns --> epidymis --> urethra.

ii) urethra --> epididymis--> vas deferns?

iii) epididymis--> urethra --> vas deferns?

iv) epididymis--> vas deferns --> urethra?      

3) Give below is an example of a certain structure and its special functional activity, e.g.,  kidney and excretion.

On similar pattern fill in the blanks.

a) Blood platelets and_____.      Coagulation of blood.

b) Hydathodes and _____.      

c) Chloroplasts and ____.      Photosynthesis 

d) Meninges and ____.       

e) Neutrophils and ____.       

4) Choose the odd one in each of the following:

Example: Calyx, Corolla, Style, Androecium .      style 

b) insulin, blood sugar, adrenaline, thyroxine.  

c) Oestrogen , progesterone, testosterone, prolactin.     

d) larynx, pancreases, testis , ovary          

e) cerebrum, cranium, cerebellum, pons.  

f) Cortex, pelvis, retina, medulla.       

5) Match the Column 

COLUMN I 

i) The blind spot 

ii) The yellow spot 

iii) The stroma

iv) The grana 

v) Cretinism

vi) Myxoedema 

vii) Afferent neurone

viii) Mortality 

COLUMN II 

a) carries impulses away from the brain and spinal cord.

b) carries impulses towards the brain and spinal cord.

c) is the place for aerobic respiration.

d) is the place for dark reaction of photosynthesis.

e) is the place through which transpiration takes place.

f) is the place for light reaction of photosynthesis.

g) is the number of deaths in a specific period of time.

h) is the number of live births in a specified period of time.

i) is free of a rod cells .

j) is the exact centre of the posterior portion of the retina .

k) is a condition due to undersecretion of thyroxine in an adult.

l) is a condition due to the lack of thyroxine in a child.

SECTION - II(40 Marks)

6) The following simplified diagram refers to the outline plan of the circulation of blood in a mammal . Study the diagram and write the number and the name of the blood vessel in each case as mentioned under:

a) Several hours after a meal containing a lot of protein, which vessel will contain the highest concentration of urea ?    

b) Which vessel would contain the highest concentration of amino acids and glucose soon after a meal ?     

c) Which vessel begins and ends in capillaries ?   

d) Which vessel will contain the smallest numbe of red blood cell peer unit volume of blood?      

e) In which vessel will the blood carry the most oxyhaemoglobin ?   

7) The following diagram represents a mammalian kidney tubule (nephron) and its blood supply. Parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 8 are as follows :

A) U-shaped loop of Henle 2) Proximal convulated tubule with blood capillaries, 3) Bowman's capsule  4) Afferent artriole from renal artery  5) Glomerulus  6) Venule to renal vein  7) Collecting tubule  8) Distal convulated tubule 

Study the diagram answer the following questions in each case :

a) where does ultrafiltration takes place ?     

b) Which structure contains the lowest concentration of urea ?   

c) Which structure contains the highest concentration of urea ?    

d) Which structure (normally contains the lowest concentration of the glucose ?   

e) where is the most water reabsorbed ?      

8) The following diagram is that of a human brain. Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate different parts of the surface of the brain and these are as follows:

A) frontal lobe of cerebrom  2) Temporal lobe of cerebrum  3) Occipital lobe of cerebrum 4) Cerebellum 5) Medulla oblongota 

Study the diagram and answer the following:

a) What handicaps would result from:

   i) damage to part number 3 ?          

  ii) damage to part number 4 ?   

b) Mention one main function of each of the parts numbered 1, 2 and 5.

9) A Well watered healthy potted plant with variegated leaves was kept in darkness for about 24 hours. It was then set up as shown in the diagram and exposed to light for about 12 hours. At the end of the time, leaf X and leaf Y were tested for Starch. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:

i) Why was the plant initially kept in darkness for 24 hours ?

ii) What is the function of sodium hydroxide solution in the flask ?

iii) Select the correct leaf from the five available choices shown in the diagram as A,B,C,D,EA. Rewrite the correct answer by filling in the appropriate letter for the questions that follow:

    a) After the starch test, leaf X would look like____

    b) After the starch test, leaf Y would look like _____.

iv) The experimental with leaf Y shows that photosynthesis requires the presence of certain factors. Mention any one factor.

10) State one function of Medulla oblongota.

11) The following diagram represents a plants cell after being placed in a strong sugar solution. Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate the following:

1) cell wall 2) strong sugar solution 3) protoplasm 4) large vacuole  5) nucleus 

Study the diagram and answer the question that follow:

a)  What is the state of the cell shown in the diagram ?    

b) Name the structure which acts as an selectively permeable membrane . 

c) If the cell had been placed in distilled water instead of strong sugar solution which feature would not have been present ?               

d) if the cell in the diagram possessed chloroplasts where would these he present ?

e) Name any one feature of this plant cell which is not present in animal cells.

 

12) The diagram shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at the points labelled A moves out into spacer between the tissue cells.

Study the diagram answer the question that follow :

a) when the liquid from the blood is surrounding the cell, what is it called ?

b) Name any one important component of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out in the spaces.     

c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid in vessel X

d) State two important functions performed in our body by the fluid present in vessel X.

12) Answer the following questions :

a) Name the endocrine cells present in the pancreas.       

b) Name two hormones secreted by the above mentioned cells.     

c) Mention one main function of each hormone named in (b).

 

13) The figure given below represents the female reproductive system of a mammal. Parts indicated by the guidelines A to D are as follows:

A.  uterus  B.  fallopian tube(oviduct)   C. Ovary    D. vagina 

grive appropriate terms for each of the following:

a) the onset of reproductive phase in a young female.    

b) Rupture of follicle and release of ovum from the ovary.     

c) Monthly discharge of blood and disintegrated tissues in human female. 

d) Process of fusion of ovum and sperm.        .

e) Fixing of developing zygote (blastocyst) on the uterine wall.      

14) Differentiate between members of each of the following pairs with reference to the phrases in brackets:

a) osmosis and diffusion (flow of solvent molecules).

b) myopia and hyperpatria (cause of the defect )

c) Glycolysis and Kreb's cycle(reaction site of the process in a cell).

d) Artery and vein (direction in the blood flow)

ABSORPTION AND MOVEMENT OF FLUID IN PLANTS 

1) Give four major uses of water in the plant.

2) Briefly discuss three features of roots which make them suitable for observing water from the soil.

3) Choose the most appropriate alternative :

a) Diffusion can be defined as :

i) the movement of molecules from one place to another.

ii) the passage of water molecules from a dilute to a concentration solution through a semi-permeable membrane.

iii) the random momentum molecules.

iv) the tendency of molecules to distribute themselves evenly within the space they occupy.

b) Osmosis may be defined as the passage of:

i) water into the root hair cells of a living plant.

ii) a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a semi-permeable membrane.

iii) water from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution through a semi permeable membrane.

iv) water from a dilute solution to a considered solution through a semi permeable membrane.

3) Name the process by which resins swelled up when placed in a beaker of water.

4) In an experiment two sets of apparatus A and B were set as shown in the figure below .

In A there is a concentrated sugar solution inside the thistle funnel. In B there is plane water both inside the thistle funnel as well as outside the funnel, as labelled. The experimentin was kept for about two hours.

a) What will happen to the level of fluids in A and B.

b) Name the process/es responsible for the changes mentioned in A above.

c) What is the cellophone supposed to represent?

d) What will be the taste of water in A after about six hours?

e) What is the purpose of setting up the second apparatus B ?

f) Define the process stated in (b) above.

5) In another experiment set-up a dye was placed in the bottom of a beaker filled with water as shown in figure A below.

After some hours the entire water in the beaker got coloured uniformly as shown in B.

a) Name the phenomenon shown in the experiment.

b) Figures C and D are diagrammatic representation of the two kinds of molecules In A and B respectively.

    i) Label the molecules.

   ii) What is solvent and what is solute .

c) Suppose all the dark shaded molecules in C were tightly enclosed in a 'cell membrane'. What shall be the nature of movement of the molecules , if any ?

6) Study the diagram below and explain the process indicated in the diagram:

7) What is meant by the following terms:

a) Turgidity 

b) Plasmoo

c) Turgor pressure 

d) Osmotic pressure 

8) The figure alongside represents a root hair.

a) Label the parts indicated by guidelines .

b) State 3 ways how the root hair is adapted for the absorption of water and mineral salts .

c) How does water pass from the root-hair to the neighbouring cell ?

d) What part does the vacuole and the cell wall play in the process of absorption vacuole ?

d) What would happened to the root hair if the soil was watered with a highly concentrated solution of sodium chloride ? Give reasons:

9) The diagram below shows an experiment in which the phloem tissues of a plant were removed (ringed) and the xylem was left intact.

a) What would happen to the leaves above the cut portion of the stem ?

b) What was the purpose of the removal of the phloem tissue ?

c) Why should there be swelling above the 'ringed' area ?

d) Removal of the peripheral tissues will ultimately result in the death of the plant. Give reasons.

e) What would happen to the leaves if the xylem was removed instead of phloem ?

10) The apparatus shown below signifies an important process.

a) Name the process.

b) where does this process occur in plants ?

c) What solution is placed inside the dialysis tubing?

d) What happens to the level of the solution in the capillary tube?

e) Define the process mentioned in (a) above 

11) One of the function of turgor pressure to the plant is that of support. This support by turgor is especially important in

a) the root of a young seedling.

b) the stem of submerged water plant.

c) the stem of a young seedling .

d) the steam of a tree in the wet season when water is easily available.

e) the stem of a tree in the dry season when water is in short supply.

12) Distinguish between each of the following pairs:

a) Exosmosis / Endosmosis 

b) Plasmolysis / turgidity 

c) Diffusion / Osmosis 

d) Permeable membrane/ semipermeable membrane 

e) Absorption by roots and root pressure

f) hypertonic solution/ Hypotonic solution 

13) The figure below shows a sprouting seed in the soil.

a) Which part of the germinating seed has come out ?

b) How do the seed parts develop a force to push the soil up ?

14) What is root pressure?

15) Mention any one advantage which the plant derives from root pressure.

16) a) A living plant cell (A) was placed in a 5% salt solution. Draw a diagram (B) by its side, as it may appear after about 30 minutes.

b) Name the phenomena which has led to the condition in B.

c) What is the reverse of the phenomenon named above?

d) Which of the two conditions. A or B shows a turgid cell ?

17) Differentiate between "bleeding and Guttation" in plants.

18) Give equivalent terms for the following :

a) pressure of the cell content on the cell wall.

b) The condition in which cell contents are shrunken.

c) Loss of water through a cell membrane.

19) Select the correct answer

a)  Osmosis occurs when 

i) two solvents are mixed 

ii) Two solution are mixed 

iii) two solutions of different concentration are separated by a semipermeable membrane.

b) When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.

i) Exosmosis takes place 

ii) endosmosis takes place.

iii) No osmosis takes place 

c) Wooden doors and windows usually swell during the rainy season because they absorb water due to

i) Imbibition ii) Osmosis iii) Diffusion iv) Plasmolysis 

d) In a Plasmolysis cell, the space between the cell wall and cell membrane is occupied by 

i) internal solution 

ii) external solution 

iii) remains empty 

e) Water absorption by the roots from the soil can only take place when the soil solution is 

i) hypotonic to cell sap 

ii) Hypertonic to cell sap 

iii) Isotonic to cell sap  Iv) none 

f) Guttation in plants is indicative of

i) root pressure 

ii) osmotic pressure 

iii) Turgor pressure 

g) Ascent of sap takes place through 

i) phloem ii) Xylem iii) pith iv) cortex 

h) If the Xylem vessels are blocked by wax, the plant will 

i) Wilt ii) remain normal  iii) show yellow leaves

19) An experiment was set up using a peeled potato (in which a cavity had been scooped out) as shown in figure A

Account for the change observed in figure B.

20) a) What was meant by water potential ?

b) Which one of the following has the highest water potential ?

i) milk  i) 20% sugar solution  iii) 20% salt solution iv) distilled water

TRANSPIRATION 

1) Name the following :

a) The structure through which most of the transpiration takes place.

b) The evaporation of water from the aerial parts of the plant.

c) Chemical substances which are used to reduce the rate of transpiration.

d) The plants having sunken stomata.

e) The apparatus used to measure transpiration.

f) The time when stomata are closed generally.

g) The pores which are surrounded by two kidney -shaped guard cells and concerned with gaseous exchange.

2) Mention weather to following statements are true or false:

a)  Gaseous exchange occurs in all body cells.

b) Transpiration reduces temperature of the plant.

c) Transpiration is reduced if the air outside is humid.

d) Moist Cobalt chloride paper is red in colour.

e) Transpiration is a psychological process.

f) More transpiration occurs from the upper surface of the leaves.

g) If the outside temperature is higher, there is less evaporation from the leaf.

3) Complete the following statement :

a) Potometer is an instrument for measuring the rate of____

b) Transpiration is highest during____

c) Most transpiration in a herbaceous plant like balsam occurs through___

d) Closing of stomata and shedding of leaves reduce____

e) 90% the total water is lost through ____

4) What is transpiration ? How is transpiration vital to the life of a plant ?

5) a) Describe the function of stomata in transpiration.

b) What is the function of the cuticle in transpiration ?

6) a) How does the suction of cell sap occur in the process of transpiration ?

b) What is the importance of suction due to transpiration in the life of a plant ?

7)a) What are the conditions which affect transpiration ?

b) State how each condition affects the rate of transpiration.

8) Differentiation between transpiration and Guttation .

9) How will you demonstrate that

a) water vapours are given off during transpiration.

b) Transpiration occurs at different rates from the two sides of a leaf.

10) What is a lenticular transpiration ? Mention one major difference between stomatal transpiration and lenticular transpiration ?

11) Explain scientifically why forests getting more frequent rains.

12) Why are the stomata found more numerous on the lower surface of the leaf ?

13) What is wilthing ? Some plants show wilting during day time even though the soil is well water. Why is it so.

14) Blowing wind can be useful to the plants in many ways. Mention any three such users giving suitable examples whenever possible.

15) Plant leaves contain stomata and human skin contains sweat pores. Mention any two differences in their functioning .

16) The figure show Ganong's Potometer.

a) wrhat is the purpose of this instrument ?

b) What are the three major factors that accelerate the transpiration ?

c) Mention any three provisions by which the plants tend to reduce transpiration ?

17) The following diagram demonstrates the process of transpiration in plant.

a) What do the arrows indicate which are shown on the sides of the leaves ?

b) What does the arrow indicates which is shown alongside the tube ?

c) How is transpiration different from evaporation ?

d) Give two advantages of transpiration to the plant.

18) The figure alongside represents an experiment to demonstrate certain phenomenon in plants.

a) What is the aim of the experiment?

b) Define the process mentioned .

c) What do you observe in the experiment as an evidence of the process ?

19) Given below is the diagram of an experimental set up to study process of transpiration in plants. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow :

a) What is the colour of the dry Cobalt chloride paper ?

b) Is the experimental leaf a monocot or a dicot ? Give a reason to support your answer.

c) Why are glass slides placed over the dry Cobalt chloride papers ?

d) After about half an hour what change, if any, would you expect to find in the Cobalt chloride paper placed on the doorsal and ventral side of the leaf ? Give a reason to support your answer. 

20) Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the process being studied in the above experiment.

b) Explain the process mentioned in (a) above.

c) Why is oil placed over Water ?

d) What do we observe with regard to the level of water when the setup placed in (1) bright sunlight  (2) humid conditions  (3) windy day ?

e) Mention any three adaptations found in plants to overcome the process mentioned in (a) above

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE (2)

1) The gastric juice secreted by the walls of the stomach contains:

a) sulphuric acid  b) hydrochloric acid c) nitric acid  d) acetic acid

2) When the equal volumes of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are exposed to diffuse sunlight, the reaction:

a) does not takes place  b) takes place at at moderate speed c) is explosive in nature d) none

3) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt the acid used is:

a) dilute sulphuric acid b) glacial Acetic acid c) conc. sulphuric acid d) carbonic acid

4) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory, the reaction mixture should be:

a) kept below 10°C b) kept below 200°C c) kept above 200°C d) any of these 

5) The drying agent used in the laboratory the preparation of dry HCL gas is:

a) Phosphorus pentoxide  b) anhydrous calcium sulphate  c) calcium oxide  d) conc. sulphuric acid

6) The salt formed when sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid are heated below 200°C is :

a) sodium hydrogen sulphate  b) sodium sulphate c) sodium bisulphate d) either a or c

7) In order to find that a given jar is filled with HCl gas, a glass rod dipped in ____ solution is held near its mouth.

a) ammonia  b) caustic soda c) caustic potash d) barium chloride

8) Hydrogen chloride gas is collected :

a) by the upward displacement of air  b) downward displacement of air c) downward displacement of water  d) over the mercury 

9) HCL gas extremely soluble in water. One volume up water at 20°C can absorb:

a) 200 volumes of HCL  b) 450 volumes of HCL c) 150 volumes of HCL d) 800 volumes of HCL 

10) HCl gas turns alkaline phenolphthalein solution from:

a) pink to green b) pink to blue c) pink to colourless d) pink to yellow 

11) The advantage of using inverted funnel for the absorption of HCl gas in water is:

a) it prevents back suction into the reaction mixture 

b) it provides large surface area of water for absorption 

c) it prevents explosion in apparatus d) both a and b

12) A non metallic hydroxide, which forms dense white fumes with HCl gas is compound of:

a) nitrogen and hydrogen  b) nitrogen and oxygen  c) nitrogen and carbon d) nitrogen and sulphur

13) A metallic carbonates react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form theit respective :

a) chlorides and water  b) chloride and carbon dioxide gas c) chlorides, water and carbon dioxide gas  d) none

14) When dilute HCl is mixed with clear solution of silver nitrate, a precipitate is formed which is:

a) yellow in colour  b) silvery in colour c) curdy white in colour d) blue in colour

15) Aqua region is a  mixture of:

a) 3 parts of conc. HCL and 1 part of conc. HNO₃

b) 1 part of conc. HCL and 3 parts of conc.HNO₃

c) equal parts of conc. HCL and conc. HNO₃ d) none

16)) Black copper(II ) oxide is placed in a beaker containing hydrochloric acid. After 1 hour the colour of reaction mixture changes to:

a) grey b) brown c) red d) blue 

17) A chemical/chemicals which can dissolve gold is:

a)! Aqua Fortis b) aqua regia c) aqua pure d) none

18) An acid commonly applied on the surface of metal before soldering or welding is:

a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) conc. nitric acidic  c) conc. acetic acid d) conc. hydrochloric acid 

19) The common name of hydrochloric acid is :

a) Marine acid b) muriatic acid c) solution of HCl d) none

20) Traces of hydrochloric acid is present in:

a) pancreatic juice  b) gastric juice  c) bile secreted by liver d) none

21) When equal volume of a mixture of hydrogen and chlorine are exposed to direct sunlight, they:

a) do not react b) react at a moderate speed c) react violently d) none

22) The acid with reacts with metallic chlorides, either without heating or with heating is:

a) conc. Nitric acid b) glacial acetic acid c) dilute sulphuric acid d) conc. Sulphuric acid 

23) conc. dilute sulphuric acid react with the Iron (II) chloride on heating to form:

a) iron(II ) sulphate and HCL only  b) iron(II ) sulphate, water and HCL only c)  iron(III ) sulphate and HCL gas only  d) iron(III ) sulphate, water and HCL gas only 

24) concentrated or dilute sulphuric acid does not react with lead chloride, because:

a) lead is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical series

b) lead is higher than the hydrogen in electrochemical series

c)!an insoluble thin layer of lead sulphate is found over lead chloride , which cuts off chemical reaction d) none

25) In laboratory , hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating conc. H₂SO₄ with:

a) potassium chloride  b) magnesium chloride c) sodium chloride d) ammonium chloride

26) Sodium chloride is used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas because:

a) it is cheapest chemical  b) it is readily available c) it reacts readily with conc. H₂SO₄ even without heating  d) all of these 

27) The sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid mixture should not be heated beyond 200°C, because:

a)! sodium sulphate so formed fuses with glass apparatus and makes it useless 

b) rate of evolution of HCl gas is very high and hence it is difficult to collect 

c) the apparatus may crack because sodium sulphate acts as a bad conductor of heat 

d) all of these 

28) During the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt and conc. H₂SO₄,  the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, only when the temperature of mixture is:

a) 300°C b) 250°C c) 220°C d) below 200°C

29) Hydrogen chloride gas is heavier than air because its vapour density is:

a) 17.75  b) 18.25 c) 36.5 d) 22

30) 1 volume of water at room temperature will absorb :

a) 750 c.c of HCl gas b) 200 c.c of HCl gas c) 450 c.c of HCl gas d) 650 c.c of HCl gas

31) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by bubbling it through conc.H₂SO₄  because:

a) HCl gas does not react chemically with conc.H₂SO₄

b) conc. H₂SO₄ being dehydrating agent absorbs moisture present in the HCL gas

c) conc.H₂SO₄ is least volatile acid and hence it's vapours do not mix with HCl gas.

d) all of these 

32) An Alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with HCl gas is :

a) sodium hydroxide  b) potassium hydroxide solution  c) ammonium hydroxide solution  d) calcium hydroxide solution

33) When silver nitrate solution is treated with hydrochloric acid a thick curdy white precipitate of silver chloride is formed. This white precipitate dissolves in excess of:

a) sodium hydroxide solution  b) ammonium hydroxide solution c) potassium hydroxide solution d) calcium hydroxide solution 

34) When hydrochloric acid is added in lead nitrate solution, then a precipitate of lead chloride is formed which is :

a) white in colour  b) light yellow in colour  c) reddish brown in colour d) deep yellow in colour 

35) The precipitate lead chloride in question 34 (above) along with rest of the reaction mixture is boiled. It is seen 

a) percipetate changes to orange colour 

b) no changes takes in precipitate

c) precipitate redissolves and a colourless liquid is formed d) none

36) The solution of nitrate/s of a metal/s which form white precipitate with dil. HCl are:

a) Zn(NO₃)₂ sol. b) Pb(NO₃)₂ sol. c) AgNO₃ d) both b and c 

37) A salt of sodium which on boiling with conc. HCl gives reddish brown fumes of nitrogen gas is :

a) Na₂S b) NaHCO₃ c) Na₂SO₄ d) NaNO₃

38) When calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute HCl , the products formed are:

a) calcium chloride and water 

b) calcium chloride and carbon dioxide

c) calcium chloride, water and CO₂ gas 

d) calcium chloride, water and carbon monoxide gas

39) Which is not a correct statement?

When Na₂CO₃ is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid ?

a) a lot of effervescence takes place 

b) carbon dioxide gas evolved 

c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide gas evolved

d) both a and b 

40) Iron savings reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form:

a) iron(II) chloride and water b) iron(II ) chloride and hydrogen c) Iron(III ) chloride and hydrogen  d) Iron (III) chloride and water 

41) In a beaker containing dilute HCl is poured 2g of black copper oxide(II ). The beaker is left undisturbed for one hour. After this time interval the colour of reaction mixture is:

a) colourless b) light green c) blue d) yellow 

42) The products formed when magnesium sulphide is treated with dil. HCl are:

a) magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas 

b) magnesium chloride and sulphur

c) magnesium chloride and hydrogen sulphide gas d) none

43) The product formed when potassium hydroxide sulphide (KHS) is treated with dilute HCl are:

a) KCL and sulphur b)  KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, H₂S and water d) KCL and H₂S gas only

44) The products formed when potassium hydrogen sulphite[KHSO₃] is treated with dilute HCl are:

A) KCL and sulphur b) KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, SO₂ gas and water d) KCL, H₂S gas and water 

45) The products formed when zinc sulphite is treated with HCl are:

a) zinc chloride and SO₂ gas b) zinc chloride and SO₃ gas c) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur  d) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and water 

46) The products formed when sodium thiosulphate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid are:

a) sodium chloride, water and SO₂ gas

b) sodium chloride, water and sulphur

c) sodium chloride, water, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

d) sodium chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

47) When copper nitrate crystals are boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) copper(II ) chloride and water

b) copper(I ) chloride and nitric acid 

c) copper(II ) chloride and nitric acid

d) copper (II) chloride, water and nitric acid 

48) When MnO₂ boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) manganese chloride and water 

b) manganese chloride and chlorine 

c) manganese chloride, water, chlorine d) none

49) When lead dioxide is boiled with conc.HCl, the product formed are:

a)  lead (II) chloride and water

b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine

c) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine

d) lead+II ) chloride, water and chlorine 

50) When red lead oxide [Pb₃O₄] is boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine c) lead (II) chloride and water d) lead(II) chloride, water and chlorine 

51) When potassium permanganate [KMnO₄] is treated conc. HCL, the product of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and water

b) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, manganese chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

52) When potassium dichromate(K₂Cr₂O₇) is boiled with conc.HCl, the products of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and water 

b) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, chromium chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

53) Which is not a correct statement ?

Hydrochloric acid is used in:

a) the manufacture of dyes, drugs and paints

b) soldering and welding of metal 

c) food preservative industry 

d) leather industry 

54) The aim of fountain experiment is to prove:

a) HCL turns blue litmus red 

b) HCl is denser than air

c) HCl is highly soluble in water

d) HCL fumes in moist air 

1) Identify the following :

a) Name of experiment which shows that hydrogen chloride gas is extremely soluble in water.

b) A gas liberated when dilute hydrochloric acid is treated with magnesium.

c) A coloured gas which reacts with hydrogen gas to form hydrogen chloride gas.

d) A gas liberated when calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

e) A white percipitate formed when sodium chloride solution is treated with silver nitrate solution.

f) A concentrated acid (1 part) which forms aqua regia, when mixed with three parts of conc. Hydrochloric acid.

g) An element liberated when sodium thiosulphate solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

h) A salt of sodium on treating with dilute hydrochloric acid liberates Sulphur dioxide gas.

i) A nitrate of a metal (other than silvery nitrate), which forms while precipitate when treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

j) Name the gas evolved when potassium sulphide is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

k) Name the gas evolved when hydrochloric acid is made to react with manganese dioxide.

l) Name an acid which on mixing with silver nitrate solution produces a white percipetate which is soluble excess of ammonium hydroxide .

m) Name the gas that is produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

2) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket.

a) The common name for hydrochloric acid is ______.(Muriatic acid/Aqua Fortis)

b) The traces of hydrochloric acid are present in ____.(pancreatic juice/ gastric juice)

c) Hydrogen gas and chlorine gas react____ when exposed to direct sunlight.(slowly/ explosively)

d) All metallic chlorides on heating with concentric____liberate hydrogen chloride gas.( nitric acid/sulphuric acid)

e) In laboratory hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating_____with conc. Sulphuric acid.(calcium chloride/sodium chloride)

f) During the preparation of hydrogen chloride from common salt and concentric Sulphuric acid, the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, if the reaction mixture is kept _____200°C (above/below)

g) Hydrogen chloride is collected by the upward displacement of air because its vapour density is____ as compared to air being 14.4. (36.5/18.5)

h) 1 volume up water at room temperature absorbs____ volumes of hydrogen chloride gas. (700/450)

i) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by passing it through____. (Phosphorus pentoxide/conc. Sulphuric acid)

j) An alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with hydrochloric acid gas is ____. (Sodium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide)

k) Quicklime is not used to dry HCL because _____. (CaO is alkaline/ CaO is acidic/ CaO is a neutral)

l) potassium sulphite on reacting hydrochloric acid releases ____gas.(Cl₂/SO₂/ H₂S) 

m) dry hydrogen chloride gas can be collected by _____displacement of air.(downward/ upward) is_____. (sodium hydrogen sulphate/sodium sulphate/chlorine)

n) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is _____.(Conc. H₂SO₄/conc. HNO₃/conc HCL)

3) Give balanced chemical equation for the following:

a) sodium thiosulphate and dilute HCl.

b) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and dilute HCl.

c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid and potassium permanganate crystals.

d) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

e) Action of hydrochloric acid on sodium bicarbonate .

f) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium sulphite.

g) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron.

4) State one Relevant Observation for each of the following:

1) When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium carbonate crystals.

2) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron(II) sulphide.

3) Lead nitrate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid and heated.

4) A small piece of zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.

5) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

6) hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air.

 

2 Marks questions 

1)a) What is the property of concentrated sulphuric acid which allows it to be used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride and nitric acid ?

b) What property of hydrogen chloride is demonstrated when it is collected by the downward)?

2) Write balanced chemical equations for the following the reactions:

a) zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

b) calcium bicarbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) What is observed when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

4) 

a) Name the experiment illustrated above.

b) Which property of hydrogen chloride is demonsrated by this experiment ?

5) a) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution ?

b) Write a balance chemical equation for the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphite.

6) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) Identify the gas Y.

b) What property of gas Y does the experiment demonstrate ?

7) a) Name two acids used in the formation of Aqua regia.

b) What is the ratio of these acids ?

8) In the laboratory preparation of HCl gas from sodium chloride, state, why the following are preferred.

a) conc. H₂SO₄ as reactant.

b) temperature of the reaction mixture below 200°C.

9) The diagram shows a simple arrangement of the fountain experiment:

a) Name the two gases you have studied which can be used in this experiment.

b) What is the common property demonstrated by this experiment?

10) Give an equation of HCl gas by synthesis. State to condition involved in its synthesis.

11) Why are conventional drying agent such as calcium oxide and Phosphorus pentoxide not used for drying moist HCl? Give equations 

12) Name two soluble nitrates which can be converted into insoluble chlorides by the use of dilute HCl. Support your answer by chemical equations .

3 Marks Questions 

1) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride 

a) Identify A and B 

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas jar filled hydrogen chloride ?

2) To a solution of hydrogen chloride, the following substances are added separately in small portions . Copy and complete the table given below.

No.  Substance added   Gas evolved   odour 

1.  Sodium sulphite         -----                  ____

2. Calcium carbonate     ____                ___

3. Magnesium ribbon.    ____.               _____

3) In and the laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid, HCl gas is dissolved in water.

a) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement used for the absorption of HCl in water.

b) Why is such an arrangement necessary?  giuve two reasons.

c)  Write the chemical equations for the laboratory preparation of HCl gas when the reactants are:

    i) below 200°C

    ii) above 200°C

4) Answer the following questions pertaining The laboratory person hydrogen chloride.

a) Write an equation for the laboratory refraction of hydrogen chloride.

b)  Name the drying agent used.

c) Name the method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas.

5) When concentrated hydrochloric acid is treated with potassium permanganate crystal a greenish yellow gas is given out.

a)  Name the gas evolved 

b) Write fully balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

c) Is hydrochloric acid acting as oxidizing agent or reducing agent?

6) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on the reaction:

a) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition/s if any.

b) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric acid ?

c) How is the gas collected ?

7) How will you obtain the following from dil. HCL acid ? Given equation 

a) hydrogen

b) carbon dioxide 

c) sulphur dioxide.

8) a) Hydrogen is burn in a greenish yellow gas A then another gas B is formed . The gas B gives dense white fumes with ammonia liquor . Name the gas A and B.

b)  Write the chemicals equations in support of your answer in (a).

9) what is an Aqua regia? How does it help in dissolving gold or platinum? Support your answer with chemical equations.

10) Write balanced chemical reaction for the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with each of the following:

a) iron

b) sodium hydrogen carbonate

c) iron (III) sulphide

11) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride.

a) identify A and B.

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas is filled with hydrogen chloride ?

12) a) Name the acid used for the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in the laboratory. Why is this particular acid preferred to other acids ?

b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride gas.

b) For the preparation of hydrochloric acid in laboratory:

    i) Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible ?

   ii) What arrangement is done to dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water ?

GENETICS 

1) Name the following :

a) The person known as "Father of Genetics".

b) Another name of Bleeder's disease.

c) The latest branch of Genetic engineering.

d) Physical expression of a trait.

d) Genetic make-up of the organism.

e) Unit of inheritance .

2) Write whether the following statements are true or false :

a) De Vries, Correus and other independently rediscovered Mendel's work.

b) Genetic counciling is mostly done with old aged people.

c) Thalassemia is the example of communicable disease.

d) An offspring is always the exact copy of its parent.

e) Heredity and variation both are necessary for evolution.

f) Mendel observed 10 traits in pea plants.

3)  Fill in the blanks with a proparate words: 

a) Heredity is the transmission of _____from one generation to another.

b) ____ is the scientific name of common pea plant.

c) Pea plans produce a large number of ____.

d) Pea plant can____ pollinate or_____ pollinate.

e) Pea plants have a very ____ life cycle.

4)  Match the column

 

MATCH A 

a) The allele that express itself 

b) F₁ generation 

c) Cross with only one pair of character

d) Law of segregation 

e) Colour blindness 

MATCH B

i) first final generation

ii) monohybrid cross 

iii) X-linked disease

iv) Dominant allele 

v) Purity of gametes

5) Define the following terms :

a) Heredity 

b) Haemophilia 

c) Mutation

d) Phenotype 

e) Genotype 

f) Crossing over 

g) Variation 

6) What do you know about genetic engineering and genetic counselling ?

7) Write in brief on a Mandelian Genetics.

8) What are the reasons behind selection of pea plants by Mendel ?

9) How are heredity and variation related to evolution?

10) Give the importance of Mendel's laws .

11) Give differences between genotype and phenotype.

12) What is sex-linked inheritance ?

13) Describe the law of segregation with an example ?

14) Give a cross to show inheritance of colour blindness.

15) Write a short note on:

a) sex influenced genes 

b) Sex linked genes

16) With suitable crocess explain haemophilia and colour blindness as the X-linked inheritance.

17) What is mutation ? How is it caused ?

18) Answer the following:

a) State Mendel's Law of Dominance.

b) A Pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure dwarf plant (tt).

Draw Punnett squares to show (1) F₁ generation (2) F₂ generation.

c) Give the phenotype of the F₂ generation.

d) Give the phenotype and Genotypeic ratio of the F₁ and F₂ generation.

e) Name any one X-linked disease found in humans.

CELL DIVISION 

A) Fill in the blanks with suitable words in the following statements:

a) Meiosis takes place in the__,  while mitosis takes place in the ___ cell of the body.

b) If a cell with two nuclei is spotted under a microscope, the cell is in __stage of cell division.

c) chromosome exhibit longitudinal splitting the two halves called ______

d) Duplication of DNA occurs in the ___ of the cell cycle.

e) __ means splitting of nucleus.

f) The spindle fibres are made up of _____.

g) The chromatids are attached to each other at _____.

h) The process by which cells multiply is called_____.

i) The chromosome number is___ during meiosis.

j) The process by which gametes are formed is called ______

k) ___is the indirect cell division. (Mitosis/meiosis)

l) The division of nucleus is called___. (Cytokinesis/karyokinesis).

m) the pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place in__  stage.(prophase/zygotene)

n) The growth of the organisms is achieved by___ division.(mitotic/meiosis)

B)  NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) division which brings about vegetative growth.

2) the phase in mitosis when the nucleolus starts disappearing.     

3) the structure that attaches to the spindle during metaphase of Mitosis.   

4) the structure from which spindle forms in an animal cell.   

5) the shortest face of a mitosis.   

6) the phase when to chromatids divides and two sister chromatids of each chromosomes separate and are drawn apart towards opposite poles.      

7) the face of the cell cycle in which DNA replication takes place.   

8) the phase of the cell cycle during which the cell grows.    

9) the largest phase of a normal cell cycle.       

10) the process during which the meiosis occurs in human beings. 

11) the stage of meiosis at which there are two cells, each with sister chromatids aligned at the equator.  

12) the shortest phase of cell cycle.      

13) the type of the cell division occurs during growth of shoot.   

14) the repeating component of each DNA strands lengthwise.    

15) the structure that initiate cell division.     

16) A membrane that disappears during later prophase.     

17) A specific part of chromosome that determines hereditary characteristics.                  

C) MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1) daughter Chromosomes move opposite poles of the spindle.

2) chromosomes lose their distinctiveness and gradually become transformed into chromatin network.

3) Chromosomes become visible as fine long threads.

4) chromosomes become arranged in a horizontal plane at the equator.

a) Anaphase

b) Metaphase

c) Prophase

D) Telophase

D) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN:

1) chromosome /Chromatid.     

2) Interphase/Prophase

3) Karyokinesis/cytokinesis

4) Mitosis/meiosis

5) mitosis in animals/plants.

E)  MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1) chromosomes are composed of:

a) proteins onley 

b) DNA and proteins 

c) DNA only d) RNA only.

2) Chromosome-replication occurs in:

a) Interphase.      b) prophase

c) metaphase      d) Telophase

3) function of Centrosome is:

a) initiation of cell division

b) inhabitation of cell division

c) to provide site for protein synthesis.     d) none

4) Separation of chromosomes occurs during:

a) Anaphase.     b) metaphase

c) prophase.       d) Telophase

5) Parts of cells is associated with formation of spindle fibres are:

a) Microtubules b) golgy bodies

c) Centriole.    d) microbodies

6) the first stage of cell division is:

a) prophase       b) interphase

c) metaphase    d) anaphase 

7) the nucleic acid, which a chromosome is mainly composed of, is:

a) DNA  b)RNA c) ATP  d) AMP

8) chromosome arrange at equilateral plate of division spindle at:

A) anaphase      b) telophase

c) telophase      d) metaphase

9) separation of chromatids and their movement to opposite poles of division spindle occurs in :

a) prophase      b) metaphase

c) telophase     d) Anaphase

F) QUESTIONS :

1) What do you mean by cell cycle.

2) What type of cell division does occur in somatic cells of the body.

3) where does the meiosis occur in our body ?

4) What is interphase.

5) Mention three significant changes that occur in a cell during Interphase.

6) Given below is a set of five terms. Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be in logical sequence.

A) Metaphase, Telophase, prophase, Anaphase.

7) what is the importance of Interphase for a cell division?

8) What is the significance of DNA replication during Interphase?

9) Give reason -- Gametes have a haploid Number of chromosomes.

G) QUESTIONS BASED ON DIAGRAMS:

1) Identify the stages of meiosis given below.

2) Figure shows a certain stages in cell division in a cell with four chromosomes.

a) Name the parts of the chromosome labelled A and B.

b)Name structure C.What is its function ?

c) Name the type of division. Give a reason.

d) What is the diploidd number for the organism from which the cell is taken ?

e) Name the stage before and the stage after the stage shown in the diagram.

3) Represents a stage during microtic cell division in an animal cell.

a) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.

b) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.

c) What is the chromosome number of the cell ?

d) Draw a neat labelled stage diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.

4) a) Draw a diagram of the nucleus of a cell, having chromosome number 6, as it would appear in the Metaphase stage of Mitosis and the label the following parts in the diagram.

i) Aster 

ii) Achromatic spindle 

iii) Chromatid

iv) Centrosome

b) Mention the difference between Mitosis and Meiosis with reference to

i) Number of daughter cell formed at the end of the division.

ii) The chromosome number of the daughter cell formed.

SIMPLE MACHINE 

1) How do you define a simple machine ?

2) Give two functions of a simple machine.

3) State the basic principle upon which a simple machine is based.

4) Define the following and give their units 

a) Effort 

b) Load

5) How do you define mechanical advantage of a machine ? What are its units ?

6) How do you define velocity ratio of a machine ? What are its units ?

7) Figure show a simple machine.

Various quantities have denoted by different letters. What are the following ?

a) Mechanical advantage 

b) Velocity ratio 

8) What do you mean by the following ?

a) Output 

b) Input 

9) What is the relation between 'input' and 'output' is case of an ideal machine ?

10) In case of a machine, which is not ideal, which of the two (output/input) is lesser and why?

11) How do you define efficiency of a machine ?

12) How are 'mechanical advantage', velocity ratio and deficiency of a machine related with each other ?

13) What are the values of the following in case of an ideal machine ?

a) Efficiency 

b) Percentage efficiency 

14) A machine is given an input of 500J. What will be its output if its efficiency is 40%.     200 j

15) How do you define a lever ?

16) Give the diagramatic representation of different types of levers .

S. N   Types of lever  Representation

1.      Class I 

2.      Class II 

3.      Class III 

17) Give two example, each, for different types of levers .

18) Fill in the blanks :

a) A wheel barrow 

b) A pair of scissors 

c) A nut cracker

d) A pair of fire tongs.

e) Handle of a water pump

f) Ore of a boat 

g) Fore-ceps in a weight box.

19) Figure shows a single fixed pulley.

In this case, what are the values of the following

a) Mechanical advantage 

b) Velocity ratio

c) Efficiency 

20) What is use of a single fixed pulley?

21) Figure shows a single movable Pulley. Neglecting weight of the pulley,

write the values of the following.

a) Mechanical advantage

b) Velocity ratio 

c) Efficiency 

22) Draw Diagram for block and tackle system as per details given below.

a) Two pulley in each block 

b) Three pulleys in fixed block and two in movable block.

23) Neglecting weight of movable block, as shown in case (22a) and case (22b), write the values of the following:

a)  Mechanical advantages

b) Velocity ratio

c) Efficiency 

24) A lever of class I has Fulcrum situated at distance of 10cm and 40 cm respectively from the points of application of weight and effort. What force is required to lift a weight of 60 kg ?      15 kgf

25) An engine consumes 50J of energy and delivers 20 J. What is the percentage efficiency of the engine ?      50%

26) A fulcrum divides a crow bar in the ratio 3:1. What weight will be lifted if an effort of 10 kgf is applied at the end of its longer arm?      30 kg

27) A block and tackle consists of three pulleys in each of the two blocks. Its efficiency is 40%. Calculate the effort required to lift a weight of 40 kgf.    16.67 kg f

28) Which balance is said to be true balance ?

29) Obtain the condition for a balanced  to be true?

30) How do you determine the correct weight of a body, using a faulty balance, by double weighing method ?

a) pans of unequal weight, arms of equal length.

b) Pans of equal weight, arms of unequal length.

31) A balance has pans of unequal weight and arms of equal length. The beam remains horizontal when pans are empty. How would you determine the correct weight of a body using this balance.

32) Two scale pans of a faulty balance are 0.02 kg each. A body of 0.08 kg, when placed in one pan, is balanced by a weight of 0.1 kg in the other. Find the length of the two arms of the balance uf the beam is 0.4m long .     0.2182m, 0.1818 m

33) A faulty balance has pans of equal weight while its left and right arms are 0.15m and 0.16.pm long. A body when placed in left pan is observed to be 0.08 kg and when placed in right pan it is 0.086 kg. Find the correct weight of the body.     0.083 kg

34) Fill in the blanks:

a) Mechanical advantage is the ratio between___ to ___.

b) Mechanical advantage = ______ x velocity ratio.

c) Mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is _____

d) Mechanical advantage of a single movable Pulley is ____

e) In case of class I lever ____lies in between____ and____

f) In case of class II lever___ lies in between____ and ____

g) In case of class III lever____ lies in between____ and _____

35) State whether the following statement is true or false :

a) A simple machine can multiply force .

b) a simple machine can change the direction of applied force.

c) a simple machine can be used to increase the output energy.

d) output can never be greater than output.

e) Output is always less than the input.

f) A true balance is that whose beam remains horizontal when its pans are empty

Test paper (physics)

MACHINE 

1) Machine acts as a____multiplier.        

 

2) Mechanical advantage is ratio of____to effort .        

3) Ratio of output to input work is called ____.      

4) Displacement ratio is called___ ratio .  

5) The upper fixed Pulley is called____.      

6) The lower movable block is called____.    

7) Mechanical advantage of single movable Pulley is____.

8) Efficiency can be increased by making the machine____.    

9) Load is the____ force to be overcomed by the machine. 

10) Example for class 1 lever is____.     

11) External agency supplied to the machine to overcome the load is___.    

12) Efficiency of ____ machine is less than 100%.    

13) Solid rigid bar free to rotate about a fulcrum is called___.   

14) Efficiency of an ideal machine is ____.    

15) Mechanical advantage of single fixed and single movable pulley is ___.   

MACHINE 

1) Machine is a____

a) device b) tool c) instrument d) all of these 

2) Machine acts as a _____

a) force multiplier 

b) speed multiplier

c) Torque multiplier 

d) all of these 

3) Load is____

a) exerted by machine 

b) resistivity force to be overcome by machine

c) external agency supplied to the machine 

d) none of the above 

4) Effort is a____

a) exerted on machine 

b) supplied by wind 

c) external agency supplied to the machine

d) created by the machine

5) Mechanical advantage is ratio of ___

a) impure quantities

b) pure quantities 

c) similar quantities

d) dissimilar quantities 

6) Mechanical advantage being a ____ratio is a ____quantity.

a) cute, impure 

b) pure, irregular 

c) pure, unitless

d) impure, measurable 

7) Mechanical advantage is ratio of _____

a) load to effort

b) effort to load

c) useful effort to load 

d) useful load to useful effort 

8) Velocity ratio is the ratio of_____

a) velocity of girl to velocity of boy.

b) velocity of effort to velocity of load

c) velocity of load to velocity of effort 

d) none of these 

9) Velocity ratio is also called _____ ratio.

a) wonderful 

b) design 

c) displacement 

d) pure

10) Velocity ratio being a pure ratio is a ____ quantity 

a) smart 

b) meaningful 

c) unitless 

d) vector 

11) Efficiency is defined as_____

a)  Mechanical advantage/ velocity ratio

b) Mechanical advantage + velocity ratio 

c) Mechanical advantage - velocity ratio 

d) Mechanical advantage x velocity ratio 

12) Efficiency for a practical machine _____

a) greater than 1 

b) equal to one

c) less than 1 

d) not defined 

13) Increase in velocity ratio would ____ the efficiency.

a) decrease b) increse  c) not affect  d) none of these

14) Decrease in mechanical advantage would ____the efficiency.

a) increase  b) decrease c) not affect d) none of these

15) Efficiency is generally expressed as a____

a) fraction

b) decimal 

c) percentage 

d) none of these

16) Mechanical advantages for a lever is___

a) load/ effort 

b) effort arm/ load arm

c) load arm/ effort arm

d) both a and b 

17) The lever which has MA as less than 1____

a) Class I 

b) Class II 

c) Class III 

d) Class I and Class III 

18) The lever that has MA equal to, less than and greater than 1 is____

a) Class I 

b) Class II 

c) Class III 

d) Class IV 

19) Greater the effort arm, ____the force multiplication.

a) lesser 

b) greater

c) larger  d) both c and b

20) Change in design of the machine would____ the VR of the machine.

a) change 

b) alter

c) not affected d)  both a and b 

21) A claw hammer has MA____

a) all of the below 

b) less than 1

c) equal to 1

d) greater than 1

22) Example of class II lever____

a) wheel barrow 

b) nut cracker

c) lemon squeezer 

d) all of these

23) A single fixed pulley is a modified form of____

a) Class I lever

b) Class II lever 

c) Class III lever

d) Frisbee 

24) A single movable Pulley is a modified form of ____

a) Class I lever 

b) Class II lever 

c) class III lever 

d) none of these 

25) In a block and tackle system consisting of an odd number of pulleys, the number of pulleys in the block is____ more than the number of pulleys in the tackle.

a)  4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 

26) In a block and tackle system, the mechanical advantage is____

a) number of pulleys always

b) One less than the number of pulleys 

c) 2 total number of pulleys 

d) load/ effort 

27) In the block and tackle system of pulleys , the velocity ratio is____

a) one less than the total number of pulleys 

b) equal to the number of pulleys 

c) ratio of displacement of load to the displacement of effort.

d) none of the above 

28) Jibs, cranes and hoist are examples of ____

a) complex machines

b) sophisticated machines

c) block and tackle system

d) robotic machines 

29) The size of pulleys _____towards the load and _____towards rigid support.

a) decreases, increases

b) increases, decreases 

c) increases, increases

d) decreases, decreases

30) In an even number of pulleys , the string starts from the hook of ____block.

a) upper 

b) lower

c) both a and b 

c) none of these 

Test paper -1 Bio 

Circulatory system 

1) Write one function of white blood cell-     

2) Write odd one out:- spleen, Thymus, pancreas, tonsil.     

3) Given below is a diagram of the external features of the heart 

a) Name the part 1 to 6.

b) What happens if the coronary artery gets an internal clot ?

c)  Mention one structural difference between 5 and 4.

4) Differences between blood plasma and serum.

5) Name the blood vessels which enter and leave the kidney.

6) Abnormally large number of WBC's in the blood is usually indication of some infection in the blood. Explain.

7) Veins have valves at intervals in their inner lining whereas the arteries do not have valves , why ?

8) chlorophyll, Magnesium , photosynthesise , hemoglobin,  calcium.     

9) Why is it necessary to have fluids in and around many organs ?

10) The blood vessel which carries oxygenated blood to the heart is _____( aorta,  pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery).     

11) An artery which carries deoxygenated blood.     

12) Write the relation:

Right ventricle: Pulmonary artery:: left ventricle: ______.         

13) Name the living cells without nuclei.    

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE(1)

A) Answer the following:

1) Why is Hydrogen chloride not collected over water ?

2) Choose the letter A, B C or D to match the description given below:

A) Ammonia 

B) Hydrogen chloride

C) Hydrogen sulphide

D) Sulphur dioxide

This has gives a white precipitate when reacted with silver nitrate solution acidified with dilute nitric acid 

3) A colourless gas (G) is passed through a solution of silver nitrate, when a curdy white precipitate (P) is formed. The precipitate is insoluble in di. Nitric acid but soluble in Ammonia solution. Name G and P.

4) Why does hydrogen chloride fume in moist air ?

5) Hydrochloric acid is not very expensive. give reason.

6) Why is high temperature is avoided in the preparation of hydrogen chloride from sodium sulphate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

7) Conc. nitric acid is not used for the preparation of HCl. Why ?

8) Explain why the following statement is not correct ?

"Lead chloride can be prepared by adding dilute hydrochloric acid to lead sulphate solution.

9) From the following list of substances: ammonium chloride, ammonium nitrate, chlorine, dilute hydrochloric acid, iron, lead nitrate, manganese (IV) oxide, silver nitrate, sodium nitrate, Sodium and nitrite and sulphur-

 Choose those which meet the description given below:

 Two compounds whose aqueous solutions give white percipitate with dilute hydrochloric acid.

10) State what is observed when hydrochloric acid is added to Silver nitrate solution.

11) What do you observe when concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to lead (IV) oxide with the warming ?

12) What would you see when hydrogen chloride is mixed with Ammonia ?

13) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution.

14) Write balanced equation for the following reaction:

Red lead (trilead tetroxide) is warmed with concentrated hydrochloric acid.

15) Write balance chemical equation for the following reaction:

Zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

16) Select from the list given below (A to F), the one substance which matches the given description.

A.  Ammonia 

B. Copper oxide 

C. Copper sulphate 

D. hydrogen chloride 

E. hydrogen sulphide 

F. lead bromide

 This compound can be oxidised to chlorine.

17) Write a balanced equation for the following reaction:

 Sodium chloride from sodium carbonate solution and dilute hydrochloric acid.

F) COMPLETE AND BALANCE THE EQUATION: 

1) Pb₃O₄+ + 8HCl(con) --> 3PbCl₂

2) Zn+ 2HCl(dil)----->ZnCl₂

3) KCl + H₂SO₄(ᶜᵒⁿᶜ) -> .... + .....

4) Cu + HCl(dil) --> .... + ......

5) Cuo + HCl(dil) ---> ..... + .....

6) Cuo +[O]+ HCl(conc) --> 

             ...+ .... + ......

7) K₂O + HCl(dil) -> .... + .......

8) HCl <⁵⁰⁰ᶜ=> ...... + .......

9) HNO₃(conc)+ HCl(conc) -----> 

         ........ + ........ + ........

10) Pb(NO₃O)₂ + 2HCl(dil) --> ...

11) MnO₂(aq) + HCl --> ...+ ...+ ....

12) KMnO₄+ HCl(conc) --> 

          .....+ ..... + 8H₂O + Cl₂

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING :

1) Products obtained by passing Chlorine and sulphur dioxide together through water.

2) Drying agent which is used to dry Hydrogen chloride.

3) A gas Which yields dense white fumes when treated with Hydrogen chloride

4) The gas obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

5) The gas obtained by treating ferrous sulphide with Hydrochloric acid. 

6) Covalent compound Which becomes electrovalent when dissolved in water.

7) The anion present in the following: when compound A is warmed with Conc. Sulphuric acid gives a gas Which fumes in moist air and gives dense white fumes with Ammonia.

8) The lead compound that can be used to oxidise Hydrogen chloride to chlorine.

9) A solution which gives Chlorine on oxidation.

10) A substance that turns moist starch iodide paper blue.

D) T/F. CORRECT IF IT IS FALSE :

1) Hydrochloric acid is found in the stomach of mammals.   

2) Hydrogen chloride gas is obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

3) When moist blue litmus paper is introduced into a jar of HCL, it turns red.

4) HCL gas is not combustible but it supports combustion.

5) HCL gas partially ionized in an aqueous solution.

6) HCL acid is not used to remove rust from iron sheets.

7) HCL acid gives brown fumes of ammonium chloride with Ammonia.

8) In the laboratory, HCL gas is collected by downward displacement of air.

9) HCL gas is a colourless odourless and tasteless gas.

10) HCL gas is insoluble in water.

Each Questions carries 2 marks 

1) Identify the substances describe below.

a) Colourless liquid used for the preparation of aqua -regia; turns wet blue litmus red; reacts with silver nitrate solution forming a dense white precipitate .

b) Greenish yellow gas which combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen chloride gas.

2) How would you represent Hydrogen chloride and Hydrochloric acid by chemical formula? Why do they differ ?

3) What must be added to sodium chloride to obtain hydrogen chloride? 

b) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place above.

4) Select from the list below, the gas which matches the description given and answer the questions that follow:

       Ammonia, chlorine, HCL, Sulphur dioxide.

When gas C is mixed with gas B ( which turns moist red litmus to blue). dense white fumes are seen and there is no other product.

a) What is the name of gas B and gas C ?

b) What is the name of the product of the reaction between gas B and gas C ?

5) Manganese(IV) oxide, lead(IV) oxide and red lead (Pb₃O₄) react with concentrated hydrochloric acid liberating chlorine.

a) What is the common property being by these metal oxides ?

b) Write the equation for the reaction of concentratated Hydrochloric acid with Pb₃O₄. 

6) Write the observation and balanced equations for the following reactions:

Excess of ammonia hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by adding hydrochloride acid in silver nitrate solution.

7) Salts A and E undergo reaction (a) and (b) respectively. Identify the anion present in these salts on the basis of these reactions.

a) When Silver Nitrate solution is added to a solution of A, a white precipitate insoluble in dilute nitric acid, is formed.

b) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to E produced an effervescence. The gas produced turns lime water milky but does not affect acidified potassium dichromate solution.

8) The following series of reactions is carried out:

a) HCL is passed into cold water.

b) Ammonia is passed into the resulting solution.

c) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to the product of (b) and solution in the warmed.

c) Silver nitrate is added to the solution resulting from (c) (Assume that the sodium hydroxide is not in excess)

 Answer the question (i), (ii), (III) and about steps and respectively name (iv) about steps (a),(b), (c) and (d) respectively.

i) 1. Name the product.

    2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

ii) 1. Name the product.

     2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

iii) 1. Name the products.

      2. Which of the product/s is/are covalent?

      3. Write the equation for the reaction.

iv) 1. What would you see ?

      2. Write the equation for the reaction.

THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 

1) Name the following :

a) The liquid part of blood.

b) Tissue type to which blood belongs.

c) The mammalian blod cell lacking nucleus and mitochondria.

d) Increase in the number of eosinophils in blood.

e) Clotting within an intact blood vessel.

f) The instrument that detects the functioning of heart by the graphical record.

g) The fluid which excludes when blood clot.

h) The process by which WBCs engulf and ingest bacteria.

i) A vitamin required for clotting of blood.

j) The respiratory pigment contained in RBCs.

k) Any two organelles absent in mature RBCs.

2) Give the numerical values of the undermined sentences.

a) Average lifespan of RBCs is

b) Range of RBCs per cubic mm in a normal adult human female is.

c) Range of RBCs in an adult human male is

d) Approximate percentage of water in plasma is

e) Number of WBCs in adult human is

f) Neutrophils constitute about____ percent of total WBCs

g) There are about___ platelets per cubic mm of blood in an adult.

h) pH of blood is ____

3) Mention the function of each of the undermined structure:

 For example 

White blood cells -- phagot

On a similar pattern, Fill in the blanks in the following cases to represent relationship between structures and their special functional activities.

a) Blood Platelets 

b) Neutrophil 

c) Erythr

d) Pulmonary vein 

e) Pericardium 

f) Aorta

g) Lymphocytes 

h) The spleen 

4) Fill in the blanks 

a) ____ is blood plasma from which fibrinogen, the blood clotting protein has been removed.

b) fibrinogen, the blood clotting agent can be removed by ____

c) An increase in the number of WBCs in the blood is called____ and decrease in the number of WBCs is called ____.

d) Blood cells are manufactured in____ from ____.

e) Oxygen combines with Haemoglobin present in RBC to produce _____.

f) Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by____.

g) Arteries carry blood from ____ to ____.

h) Lymph contains ____ but takes ____ and ____

i) Number of heartbeats in an adult person is____.

5) Choose the correct options:

i) White blood cells engulf bacteria in a process called 

a) Diapedesis 

b) phagocytosis 

c) Active transport

d) passive transport 

ii) Which blood vessels carry blood from lungs to heart  ?

a) Pulmonary veins

b) coronary arteries 

c) coronary veins 

d) pulmonary arteriea

iii) pH range of blood is 

a) 2.3- 4.5 b) 8.9-9.5 c) 7.3-7.45 d) 0-1 

iv) In adult human, RBC has

a) No nucleus 

b) double nuclei 

c) bilobed nucleus 

d) multinuclei

v) In persons living at high altitudes, RBCs are

a) more in number 

b) less in number 

c) same in number 

d) destroyed suddenly 

vi) neutrophils engulf microbes by:

a) phagocytosis 

b) endocytosis 

c) exocytosis 

d) pinocytosis 

vii) Heptic portal vein, transport blood from :

a) stomach and intestine into liver 

b) Liver to heart

c) Heart to liver

d) intestine to liver

viii)  In man, systolic and diastolic pressure are about:

a)  120mm of Hg and 80 mm of Hg.

b) 80mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.

c) 120mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.

d) 80mm of Hg and 40 mm of Hg.

6) Match the column 

Column A 

a) Tricuspid valve 

b) Bicuspid valve 

c) Semilunar valves 

d) SA node

e) Pulmonary artery 

Column B 

i) Carry deoxygenated blood for oxygenation 

ii) conduct impulses 

iii) guards the opening between right auricle and right ventricle

iv) guards the opening between left auricle and left ventricle 

v) prevent back flow of blood from aorta.

7) Match the column 

Column A 

a) The liquid coming out of blood during clotting

b) relaxation of heart 

c) contraction of heart

d) the muscle that never becomes fatigue

e) hardening of arteries 

Column B 

i) cardiac muscles 

ii) diastole

iii) Systolic

iv) Arteriosclerosis

v) serum 

8) Define the following:

a) Lymph nodes 

b) Portal system

c) diostol 

d) Diapedesis 

e) pericardium 

f) Rh factor 

9) Complete the following Table by filling the blanks:

 organs  name of an artery or vein  way of transportation 

a) heart   pilluminary vein                  _____

b) ____    pulmonary artery          heart to lung

c) ____    renal artery                     _____

d) kidney  ____.        Kidney to posterior vena cava 

e) Liver   hepatic portal vein.      _____

f) ____      hepatic artery              ______

10) Why do the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood not mix up in the human heart ?

11) When are the sounds  LUBB and DUBB produced during the heartbeat ?

12) Why does the left ventricle has ahicker wall than the right ventricle ?

13) What do you mean by the double circulation of blood ?

14) Why is the systolic pressure higher than the diastolic pressure?

15) What is systematic circulation ?

16) Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of the following characteristics:

a) colour 

b) location 

c) composition 

d) platelets

e) flow

17) Give the reasons for the following:

a) Only veins and not the arteries are provided with valves .

b) The arteries are deep seated in the body.

18) Why does the blood not clot inside the body ?

19) Give a schematic representation of the process of blood clotting 

20) what are the function of the blood ?

21) why is it necessary to know the blood groups before transfusion.

22) What is hemophilia 

23) Name any lymph gland present in the human body. Write its function.

24) Define pulse. What is the pulse rate of a normal human adult ?

25) Enumerate any four difference between white blood cells and red blood cells .

26) What is the function of blood plasma ?

27) What are the function of hepatic artery ?

28) The figure given below represents the section of the human heart.

a) Name the parts number 1 to 8.

b) Which structures help in maintaining the direction of the flow of blood ?

c) To which organ/s does the blood vessels (labelled 3) carry blood?

d) What is the main difference in the quality of blood containing in part 6 and 7.

29) The following simplified diagram refers to the outline plan of circulation of blood in a mammal. Study the diagram and write the name of the blood vessels according to the given number.

a) Several hours after a meal containing a lot of protein, which vessel will contain highest concentration of Urea ?

b) Which vessel would contain the highest concentration of the amino acid and glucose soon after meal ?

c) Which vessel begin and ends in capillaries ?

e) Which vessel will contain the smallest number of red blood cells per unit volume of blood ?

30) The diagram below shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at points labelled A moves out into the spaces between the tissue cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:

a) When the liquid from the blood is surrounding the cells, what is it called ?

b) Name any one important components of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out into the spaces .

c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid present in vessel X.

31) The diagram below represents a certain category of blood vessels showing the role of special structure in their walls :

a) Name the kind of blood vessels shown 

b) Name the structure shown inside the blood vessels .

c) What is the role of these structures?

d) Towards which side of the figure (top or bottom) is the heart located ?

32) The figure given below are cross sections of blood vessels:

a) identify the blood vessel A, B, C.

b) Name the party level 1-4.

c) Mention two structural differences between A and B.

d) Name the type of blood that flows (a) through A and (b) through B.

e) In which of the above vessels referred in(iv) does exchange of gases actually take place ?

33) The diagram below represents circulation in the human body, Answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the blood vessel labelled 1, 3, 6 and 7.

b) Name the blood vessel that supplies blood to the walls of the heart with oxygen.

c) Draw a neat labelled diagram, of the blood vessel numbered 2  as seen in a cross section.

d) Mention one structural difference between blood vessels numbered 4 and 5