Saturday, 28 March 2026

CLASS- X--> C, B, P(26/27)

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE (2)


1) The gastric juice secreted by the walls of the stomach contains:
a) sulphuric acid  b) hydrochloric acid c) nitric acid  d) acetic acid

2) When the equal volumes of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are exposed to diffuse sunlight, the reaction:
a) does not takes place  b) takes place at at moderate speed c) is explosive in nature d) none

3) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt the acid used is:
a) dilute sulphuric acid b) glacial Acetic acid c) conc. sulphuric acid d) carbonic acid

4) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory, the reaction mixture should be:
a) kept below 10°C b) kept below 200°C c) kept above 200°C d) any of these 

5) The drying agent used in the laboratory the preparation of dry HCL gas is:
a) Phosphorus pentoxide  b) anhydrous calcium sulphate  c) calcium oxide  d) conc. sulphuric acid

6) The salt formed when sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid are heated below 200°C is :
a) sodium hydrogen sulphate  b) sodium sulphate c) sodium bisulphate d) either a or c

7) In order to find that a given jar is filled with HCl gas, a glass rod dipped in ____ solution is held near its mouth.
a) ammonia  b) caustic soda c) caustic potash d) barium chloride

8) Hydrogen chloride gas is collected :
a) by the upward displacement of air  b) downward displacement of air c) downward displacement of water  d) over the mercury 

9) HCL gas extremely soluble in water. One volume up water at 20°C can absorb:
a) 200 volumes of HCL  b) 450 volumes of HCL c) 150 volumes of HCL d) 800 volumes of HCL 

10) HCl gas turns alkaline phenolphthalein solution from:
a) pink to green b) pink to blue c) pink to colourless d) pink to yellow 

11) The advantage of using inverted funnel for the absorption of HCl gas in water is:
a) it prevents back suction into the reaction mixture 
b) it provides large surface area of water for absorption 
c) it prevents explosion in apparatus d) both a and b

12) A non metallic hydroxide, which forms dense white fumes with HCl gas is compound of:
a) nitrogen and hydrogen  b) nitrogen and oxygen  c) nitrogen and carbon d) nitrogen and sulphur

13) A metallic carbonates react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form theit respective :
a) chlorides and water  b) chloride and carbon dioxide gas c) chlorides, water and carbon dioxide gas  d) none

14) When dilute HCl is mixed with clear solution of silver nitrate, a precipitate is formed which is:
a) yellow in colour  b) silvery in colour c) curdy white in colour d) blue in colour

15) Aqua region is a  mixture of:
a) 3 parts of conc. HCL and 1 part of conc. HNO₃
b) 1 part of conc. HCL and 3 parts of conc.HNO₃
c) equal parts of conc. HCL and conc. HNO₃ d) none

16)) Black copper(II ) oxide is placed in a beaker containing hydrochloric acid. After 1 hour the colour of reaction mixture changes to:
a) grey b) brown c) red d) blue 

17) A chemical/chemicals which can dissolve gold is:
a)! Aqua Fortis b) aqua regia c) aqua pure d) none

18) An acid commonly applied on the surface of metal before soldering or welding is:
a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) conc. nitric acidic  c) conc. acetic acid d) conc. hydrochloric acid 

19) The common name of hydrochloric acid is :
a) Marine acid b) muriatic acid c) solution of HCl d) none

20) Traces of hydrochloric acid is present in:
a) pancreatic juice  b) gastric juice  c) bile secreted by liver d) none

21) When equal volume of a mixture of hydrogen and chlorine are exposed to direct sunlight, they:
a) do not react b) react at a moderate speed c) react violently d) none

22) The acid with reacts with metallic chlorides, either without heating or with heating is:
a) conc. Nitric acid b) glacial acetic acid c) dilute sulphuric acid d) conc. Sulphuric acid 

23) conc. dilute sulphuric acid react with the Iron (II) chloride on heating to form:
a) iron(II ) sulphate and HCL only  b) iron(II ) sulphate, water and HCL only c)  iron(III ) sulphate and HCL gas only  d) iron(III ) sulphate, water and HCL gas only 

24) concentrated or dilute sulphuric acid does not react with lead chloride, because:
a) lead is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical series
b) lead is higher than the hydrogen in electrochemical series
c)!an insoluble thin layer of lead sulphate is found over lead chloride , which cuts off chemical reaction d) none

25) In laboratory , hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating conc. H₂SO₄ with:
a) potassium chloride  b) magnesium chloride c) sodium chloride d) ammonium chloride

26) Sodium chloride is used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas because:
a) it is cheapest chemical  b) it is readily available c) it reacts readily with conc. H₂SO₄ even without heating  d) all of these 

27) The sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid mixture should not be heated beyond 200°C, because:
a)! sodium sulphate so formed fuses with glass apparatus and makes it useless 
b) rate of evolution of HCl gas is very high and hence it is difficult to collect 
c) the apparatus may crack because sodium sulphate acts as a bad conductor of heat 
d) all of these 

28) During the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt and conc. H₂SO₄,  the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, only when the temperature of mixture is:
a) 300°C b) 250°C c) 220°C d) below 200°C

29) Hydrogen chloride gas is heavier than air because its vapour density is:
a) 17.75  b) 18.25 c) 36.5 d) 22

30) 1 volume of water at room temperature will absorb :
a) 750 c.c of HCl gas b) 200 c.c of HCl gas c) 450 c.c of HCl gas d) 650 c.c of HCl gas

31) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by bubbling it through conc.H₂SO₄  because:
a) HCl gas does not react chemically with conc.H₂SO₄
b) conc. H₂SO₄ being dehydrating agent absorbs moisture present in the HCL gas
c) conc.H₂SO₄ is least volatile acid and hence it's vapours do not mix with HCl gas.
d) all of these 

32) An Alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with HCl gas is :
a) sodium hydroxide  b) potassium hydroxide solution  c) ammonium hydroxide solution  d) calcium hydroxide solution

33) When silver nitrate solution is treated with hydrochloric acid a thick curdy white precipitate of silver chloride is formed. This white precipitate dissolves in excess of:
a) sodium hydroxide solution  b) ammonium hydroxide solution c) potassium hydroxide solution d) calcium hydroxide solution 

34) When hydrochloric acid is added in lead nitrate solution, then a precipitate of lead chloride is formed which is :
a) white in colour  b) light yellow in colour  c) reddish brown in colour d) deep yellow in colour 

35) The precipitate lead chloride in question 34 (above) along with rest of the reaction mixture is boiled. It is seen 
a) percipetate changes to orange colour 
b) no changes takes in precipitate
c) precipitate redissolves and a colourless liquid is formed d) none

36) The solution of nitrate/s of a metal/s which form white precipitate with dil. HCl are:
a) Zn(NO₃)₂ sol. b) Pb(NO₃)₂ sol. c) AgNO₃ d) both b and c 

37) A salt of sodium which on boiling with conc. HCl gives reddish brown fumes of nitrogen gas is :
a) Na₂S b) NaHCO₃ c) Na₂SO₄ d) NaNO₃

38) When calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute HCl , the products formed are:
a) calcium chloride and water 
b) calcium chloride and carbon dioxide
c) calcium chloride, water and CO₂ gas 
d) calcium chloride, water and carbon monoxide gas

39) Which is not a correct statement?
When Na₂CO₃ is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid ?
a) a lot of effervescence takes place 
b) carbon dioxide gas evolved 
c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide gas evolved
d) both a and b 

40) Iron savings reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form:
a) iron(II) chloride and water b) iron(II ) chloride and hydrogen c) Iron(III ) chloride and hydrogen  d) Iron (III) chloride and water 

41) In a beaker containing dilute HCl is poured 2g of black copper oxide(II ). The beaker is left undisturbed for one hour. After this time interval the colour of reaction mixture is:
a) colourless b) light green c) blue d) yellow 

42) The products formed when magnesium sulphide is treated with dil. HCl are:
a) magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas 
b) magnesium chloride and sulphur
c) magnesium chloride and hydrogen sulphide gas d) none

43) The product formed when potassium hydroxide sulphide (KHS) is treated with dilute HCl are:
a) KCL and sulphur b)  KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, H₂S and water d) KCL and H₂S gas only

44) The products formed when potassium hydrogen sulphite[KHSO₃] is treated with dilute HCl are:
A) KCL and sulphur b) KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, SO₂ gas and water d) KCL, H₂S gas and water 

45) The products formed when zinc sulphite is treated with HCl are:
a) zinc chloride and SO₂ gas b) zinc chloride and SO₃ gas c) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur  d) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and water 

46) The products formed when sodium thiosulphate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid are:
a) sodium chloride, water and SO₂ gas
b) sodium chloride, water and sulphur
c) sodium chloride, water, SO₂ gas and sulphur 
d) sodium chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

47) When copper nitrate crystals are boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:
a) copper(II ) chloride and water
b) copper(I ) chloride and nitric acid 
c) copper(II ) chloride and nitric acid
d) copper (II) chloride, water and nitric acid 

48) When MnO₂ boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:
a) manganese chloride and water 
b) manganese chloride and chlorine 
c) manganese chloride, water, chlorine d) none

49) When lead dioxide is boiled with conc.HCl, the product formed are:
a)  lead (II) chloride and water
b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine
c) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine
d) lead+II ) chloride, water and chlorine 

50) When red lead oxide [Pb₃O₄] is boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:
a) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine c) lead (II) chloride and water d) lead(II) chloride, water and chlorine 

51) When potassium permanganate [KMnO₄] is treated conc. HCL, the product of reaction are:
a) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and water
b) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and chlorine gas
c) potassium chloride, manganese chloride, water and chlorine gas
d) none of these 

52) When potassium dichromate(K₂Cr₂O₇) is boiled with conc.HCl, the products of reaction are:
a) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and water 
b) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and chlorine gas
c) potassium chloride, chromium chloride, water and chlorine gas
d) none of these 

53) Which is not a correct statement ?
Hydrochloric acid is used in:
a) the manufacture of dyes, drugs and paints
b) soldering and welding of metal 
c) food preservative industry 
d) leather industry 

54) The aim of fountain experiment is to prove:
a) HCL turns blue litmus red 
b) HCl is denser than air
c) HCl is highly soluble in water
d) HCL fumes in moist air 



1) Identify the following :

a) Name of experiment which shows that hydrogen chloride gas is extremely soluble in water.

b) A gas liberated when dilute hydrochloric acid is treated with magnesium.

c) A coloured gas which reacts with hydrogen gas to form hydrogen chloride gas.

d) A gas liberated when calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

e) A white percipitate formed when sodium chloride solution is treated with silver nitrate solution.

f) A concentrated acid (1 part) which forms aqua regia, when mixed with three parts of conc. Hydrochloric acid.

g) An element liberated when sodium thiosulphate solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

h) A salt of sodium on treating with dilute hydrochloric acid liberates Sulphur dioxide gas.

i) A nitrate of a metal (other than silvery nitrate), which forms while precipitate when treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

j) Name the gas evolved when potassium sulphide is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

k) Name the gas evolved when hydrochloric acid is made to react with manganese dioxide.

l) Name an acid which on mixing with silver nitrate solution produces a white percipetate which is soluble excess of ammonium hydroxide .

m) Name the gas that is produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.


2) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket.

a) The common name for hydrochloric acid is ______.(Muriatic acid/Aqua Fortis)

b) The traces of hydrochloric acid are present in ____.(pancreatic juice/ gastric juice)

c) Hydrogen gas and chlorine gas react____ when exposed to direct sunlight.(slowly/ explosively)

d) All metallic chlorides on heating with concentric____liberate hydrogen chloride gas.( nitric acid/sulphuric acid)

e) In laboratory hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating_____with conc. Sulphuric acid.(calcium chloride/sodium chloride)

f) During the preparation of hydrogen chloride from common salt and concentric Sulphuric acid, the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, if the reaction mixture is kept _____200°C (above/below)

g) Hydrogen chloride is collected by the upward displacement of air because its vapour density is____ as compared to air being 14.4. (36.5/18.5)

h) 1 volume up water at room temperature absorbs____ volumes of hydrogen chloride gas. (700/450)

i) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by passing it through____. (Phosphorus pentoxide/conc. Sulphuric acid)

j) An alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with hydrochloric acid gas is ____. (Sodium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide)

k) Quicklime is not used to dry HCL because _____. (CaO is alkaline/ CaO is acidic/ CaO is a neutral)

l) potassium sulphite on reacting hydrochloric acid releases ____gas.(Cl₂/SO₂/ H₂S) 

m) dry hydrogen chloride gas can be collected by _____displacement of air.(downward/ upward) is_____. (sodium hydrogen sulphate/sodium sulphate/chlorine)

n) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is _____.(Conc. H₂SO₄/conc. HNO₃/conc HCL)


3) Give balanced chemical equation for the following:

a) sodium thiosulphate and dilute HCl.

b) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and dilute HCl.

c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid and potassium permanganate crystals.

d) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

e) Action of hydrochloric acid on sodium bicarbonate .

f) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium sulphite.

g) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron.



4) State one Relevant Observation for each of the following:

1) When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium carbonate crystals.


2) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron(II) sulphide.

3) Lead nitrate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid and heated.

4) A small piece of zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.

5) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

6) hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air.
 

2 Marks questions 

1)a) What is the property of concentrated sulphuric acid which allows it to be used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride and nitric acid ?
b) What property of hydrogen chloride is demonstrated when it is collected by the downward)?

2) Write balanced chemical equations for the following the reactions:
a) zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.
b) calcium bicarbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) What is observed when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

4) 
a) Name the experiment illustrated above.
b) Which property of hydrogen chloride is demonsrated by this experiment ?

5) a) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution ?
b) Write a balance chemical equation for the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphite.

6) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
a) Identify the gas Y.
b) What property of gas Y does the experiment demonstrate ?

7) a) Name two acids used in the formation of Aqua regia.
b) What is the ratio of these acids ?

8) In the laboratory preparation of HCl gas from sodium chloride, state, why the following are preferred.
a) conc. H₂SO₄ as reactant.
b) temperature of the reaction mixture below 200°C.

9) The diagram shows a simple arrangement of the fountain experiment:
a) Name the two gases you have studied which can be used in this experiment.
b) What is the common property demonstrated by this experiment?

10) Give an equation of HCl gas by synthesis. State to condition involved in its synthesis.

11) Why are conventional drying agent such as calcium oxide and Phosphorus pentoxide not used for drying moist HCl? Give equations 

12) Name two soluble nitrates which can be converted into insoluble chlorides by the use of dilute HCl. Support your answer by chemical equations .



3 Marks Questions 

1) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride 
a) Identify A and B 
b) Write the equation for the reaction.
c) How would you check whether or not the gas jar filled hydrogen chloride ?

2) To a solution of hydrogen chloride, the following substances are added separately in small portions . Copy and complete the table given below.
No.  Substance added   Gas evolved   odour 
1.  Sodium sulphite         -----                  ____
2. Calcium carbonate     ____                ___
3. Magnesium ribbon.    ____.               _____


3) In and the laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid, HCl gas is dissolved in water.
a) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement used for the absorption of HCl in water.
b) Why is such an arrangement necessary?  giuve two reasons.
c)  Write the chemical equations for the laboratory preparation of HCl gas when the reactants are:
    i) below 200°C
    ii) above 200°C

4) Answer the following questions pertaining The laboratory person hydrogen chloride.
a) Write an equation for the laboratory refraction of hydrogen chloride.
b)  Name the drying agent used.
c) Name the method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas.

5) When concentrated hydrochloric acid is treated with potassium permanganate crystal a greenish yellow gas is given out.
a)  Name the gas evolved 
b) Write fully balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
c) Is hydrochloric acid acting as oxidizing agent or reducing agent?

6) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on the reaction:
a) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition/s if any.
b) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric acid ?
c) How is the gas collected ?

7) How will you obtain the following from dil. HCL acid ? Given equation 
a) hydrogen
b) carbon dioxide 
c) sulphur dioxide.

8) a) Hydrogen is burn in a greenish yellow gas A then another gas B is formed . The gas B gives dense white fumes with ammonia liquor . Name the gas A and B.
b)  Write the chemicals equations in support of your answer in (a).

9) what is an Aqua regia? How does it help in dissolving gold or platinum? Support your answer with chemical equations.

10) Write balanced chemical reaction for the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with each of the following:
a) iron
b) sodium hydrogen carbonate
c) iron (III) sulphide

11) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride.
a) identify A and B.
b) Write the equation for the reaction.
c) How would you check whether or not the gas is filled with hydrogen chloride ?

12) a) Name the acid used for the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in the laboratory. Why is this particular acid preferred to other acids ?
b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride gas.
b) For the preparation of hydrochloric acid in laboratory:
    i) Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible ?
   ii) What arrangement is done to dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water ?













GENETICS 

1) Name the following :
a) The person known as "Father of Genetics".

b) Another name of Bleeder's disease.

c) The latest branch of Genetic engineering.

d) Physical expression of a trait.

d) Genetic make-up of the organism.

e) Unit of inheritance .


2) Write whether the following statements are true or false :

a) De Vries, Correus and other independently rediscovered Mendel's work.

b) Genetic counciling is mostly done with old aged people.

c) Thalassemia is the example of communicable disease.

d) An offspring is always the exact copy of its parent.

e) Heredity and variation both are necessary for evolution.

f) Mendel observed 10 traits in pea plants.


3)  Fill in the blanks with a proparate words: 

a) Heredity is the transmission of _____from one generation to another.

b) ____ is the scientific name of common pea plant.

c) Pea plans produce a large number of ____.

d) Pea plant can____ pollinate or_____ pollinate.

e) Pea plants have a very ____ life cycle.

4)  Match the column
 
MATCH A 
a) The allele that express itself 
b) F₁ generation 
c) Cross with only one pair of character
d) Law of segregation 
e) Colour blindness 

MATCH B
i) first final generation
ii) monohybrid cross 
iii) X-linked disease
iv) Dominant allele 
v) Purity of gametes

5) Define the following terms :
a) Heredity 
b) Haemophilia 
c) Mutation
d) Phenotype 
e) Genotype 
f) Crossing over 
g) Variation 

6) What do you know about genetic engineering and genetic counselling ?

7) Write in brief on a Mandelian Genetics.

8) What are the reasons behind selection of pea plants by Mendel ?

9) How are heredity and variation related to evolution?

10) Give the importance of Mendel's laws .

11) Give differences between genotype and phenotype.

12) What is sex-linked inheritance ?

13) Describe the law of segregation with an example ?

14) Give a cross to show inheritance of colour blindness.

15) Write a short note on:
a) sex influenced genes 
b) Sex linked genes

16) With suitable crocess explain haemophilia and colour blindness as the X-linked inheritance.

17) What is mutation ? How is it caused ?

18) Answer the following:
a) State Mendel's Law of Dominance.
b) A Pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure dwarf plant (tt).
Draw Punnett squares to show (1) F₁ generation (2) F₂ generation.
c) Give the phenotype of the F₂ generation.
d) Give the phenotype and Genotypeic ratio of the F₁ and F₂ generation.
e) Name any one X-linked disease found in humans.







CELL DIVISION 

A) Fill in the blanks with suitable words in the following statements:

a) Meiosis takes place in the__,  while mitosis takes place in the ___ cell of the body.

b) If a cell with two nuclei is spotted under a microscope, the cell is in __stage of cell division.

c) chromosome exhibit longitudinal splitting the two halves called ______

d) Duplication of DNA occurs in the ___ of the cell cycle.

e) __ means splitting of nucleus.

f) The spindle fibres are made up of _____.

g) The chromatids are attached to each other at _____.

h) The process by which cells multiply is called_____.

i) The chromosome number is___ during meiosis.

j) The process by which gametes are formed is called ______

k) ___is the indirect cell division. (Mitosis/meiosis)

l) The division of nucleus is called___. (Cytokinesis/karyokinesis).

m) the pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place in__  stage.(prophase/zygotene)

n) The growth of the organisms is achieved by___ division.(mitotic/meiosis)


B)  NAME THE FOLLOWING:
1) division which brings about vegetative growth.

2) the phase in mitosis when the nucleolus starts disappearing.     

3) the structure that attaches to the spindle during metaphase of Mitosis.   

4) the structure from which spindle forms in an animal cell.   

5) the shortest face of a mitosis.   

6) the phase when to chromatids divides and two sister chromatids of each chromosomes separate and are drawn apart towards opposite poles.      

7) the face of the cell cycle in which DNA replication takes place.   

8) the phase of the cell cycle during which the cell grows.    

9) the largest phase of a normal cell cycle.       

10) the process during which the meiosis occurs in human beings. 

11) the stage of meiosis at which there are two cells, each with sister chromatids aligned at the equator.  

12) the shortest phase of cell cycle.      

13) the type of the cell division occurs during growth of shoot.   

14) the repeating component of each DNA strands lengthwise.    

15) the structure that initiate cell division.     

16) A membrane that disappears during later prophase.     

17) A specific part of chromosome that determines hereditary characteristics.                  


C) MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1) daughter Chromosomes move opposite poles of the spindle.
2) chromosomes lose their distinctiveness and gradually become transformed into chromatin network.
3) Chromosomes become visible as fine long threads.
4) chromosomes become arranged in a horizontal plane at the equator.
a) Anaphase
b) Metaphase
c) Prophase
D) Telophase



D) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN:
1) chromosome /Chromatid.     

2) Interphase/Prophase

3) Karyokinesis/cytokinesis

4) Mitosis/meiosis

5) mitosis in animals/plants.


E)  MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1) chromosomes are composed of:
a) proteins onley 
b) DNA and proteins 
c) DNA only d) RNA only.

2) Chromosome-replication occurs in:
a) Interphase.      b) prophase
c) metaphase      d) Telophase

3) function of Centrosome is:
a) initiation of cell division
b) inhabitation of cell division
c) to provide site for protein synthesis.     d) none

4) Separation of chromosomes occurs during:
a) Anaphase.     b) metaphase
c) prophase.       d) Telophase

5) Parts of cells is associated with formation of spindle fibres are:
a) Microtubules b) golgy bodies
c) Centriole.    d) microbodies

6) the first stage of cell division is:
a) prophase       b) interphase
c) metaphase    d) anaphase 

7) the nucleic acid, which a chromosome is mainly composed of, is:
a) DNA  b)RNA c) ATP  d) AMP

8) chromosome arrange at equilateral plate of division spindle at:
A) anaphase      b) telophase
c) telophase      d) metaphase

9) separation of chromatids and their movement to opposite poles of division spindle occurs in :
a) prophase      b) metaphase
c) telophase     d) Anaphase



F) QUESTIONS :

1) What do you mean by cell cycle.

2) What type of cell division does occur in somatic cells of the body.

3) where does the meiosis occur in our body ?

4) What is interphase.

5) Mention three significant changes that occur in a cell during Interphase.

6) Given below is a set of five terms. Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be in logical sequence.
A) Metaphase, Telophase, prophase, Anaphase.

7) what is the importance of Interphase for a cell division?

8) What is the significance of DNA replication during Interphase?

9) Give reason -- Gametes have a haploid Number of chromosomes.


G) QUESTIONS BASED ON DIAGRAMS:

1) Identify the stages of meiosis given below.

2) Figure shows a certain stages in cell division in a cell with four chromosomes.

a) Name the parts of the chromosome labelled A and B.
b)Name structure C.What is its function ?
c) Name the type of division. Give a reason.
d) What is the diploidd number for the organism from which the cell is taken ?
e) Name the stage before and the stage after the stage shown in the diagram.



3) Represents a stage during microtic cell division in an animal cell.

a) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
b) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
c) What is the chromosome number of the cell ?
d) Draw a neat labelled stage diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.


4) a) Draw a diagram of the nucleus of a cell, having chromosome number 6, as it would appear in the Metaphase stage of Mitosis and the label the following parts in the diagram.
i) Aster 
ii) Achromatic spindle 
iii) Chromatid
iv) Centrosome

b) Mention the difference between Mitosis and Meiosis with reference to
i) Number of daughter cell formed at the end of the division.
ii) The chromosome number of the daughter cell formed.



SIMPLE MACHINE 

1) How do you define a simple machine ?

2) Give two functions of a simple machine.

3) State the basic principle upon which a simple machine is based.

4) Define the following and give their units 
a) Effort 
b) Load

5) How do you define mechanical advantage of a machine ? What are its units ?

6) How do you define velocity ratio of a machine ? What are its units ?

7) Figure show a simple machine.
Various quantities have denoted by different letters. What are the following ?
a) Mechanical advantage 
b) Velocity ratio 

8) What do you mean by the following ?
a) Output 
b) Input 

9) What is the relation between 'input' and 'output' is case of an ideal machine ?

10) In case of a machine, which is not ideal, which of the two (output/input) is lesser and why?

11) How do you define efficiency of a machine ?

12) How are 'mechanical advantage', velocity ratio and deficiency of a machine related with each other ?

13) What are the values of the following in case of an ideal machine ?
a) Efficiency 
b) Percentage efficiency 

14) A machine is given an input of 500J. What will be its output if its efficiency is 40%.     200 j

15) How do you define a lever ?

16) Give the diagramatic representation of different types of levers .
S. N   Types of lever  Representation
1.      Class I 
2.      Class II 
3.      Class III 

17) Give two example, each, for different types of levers .


18) Fill in the blanks :
a) A wheel barrow 
b) A pair of scissors 
c) A nut cracker
d) A pair of fire tongs.
e) Handle of a water pump
f) Ore of a boat 
g) Fore-ceps in a weight box.

19) Figure shows a single fixed pulley.
In this case, what are the values of the following
a) Mechanical advantage 
b) Velocity ratio
c) Efficiency 

20) What is use of a single fixed pulley?

21) Figure shows a single movable Pulley. Neglecting weight of the pulley,
write the values of the following.
a) Mechanical advantage
b) Velocity ratio 
c) Efficiency 

22) Draw Diagram for block and tackle system as per details given below.
a) Two pulley in each block 
b) Three pulleys in fixed block and two in movable block.

23) Neglecting weight of movable block, as shown in case (22a) and case (22b), write the values of the following:
a)  Mechanical advantages
b) Velocity ratio
c) Efficiency 

24) A lever of class I has Fulcrum situated at distance of 10cm and 40 cm respectively from the points of application of weight and effort. What force is required to lift a weight of 60 kg ?      15 kgf

25) An engine consumes 50J of energy and delivers 20 J. What is the percentage efficiency of the engine ?      50%

26) A fulcrum divides a crow bar in the ratio 3:1. What weight will be lifted if an effort of 10 kgf is applied at the end of its longer arm?      30 kg

27) A block and tackle consists of three pulleys in each of the two blocks. Its efficiency is 40%. Calculate the effort required to lift a weight of 40 kgf.    16.67 kg f

28) Which balance is said to be true balance ?

29) Obtain the condition for a balanced  to be true?

30) How do you determine the correct weight of a body, using a faulty balance, by double weighing method ?
a) pans of unequal weight, arms of equal length.
b) Pans of equal weight, arms of unequal length.

31) A balance has pans of unequal weight and arms of equal length. The beam remains horizontal when pans are empty. How would you determine the correct weight of a body using this balance.

32) Two scale pans of a faulty balance are 0.02 kg each. A body of 0.08 kg, when placed in one pan, is balanced by a weight of 0.1 kg in the other. Find the length of the two arms of the balance uf the beam is 0.4m long .     0.2182m, 0.1818 m

33) A faulty balance has pans of equal weight while its left and right arms are 0.15m and 0.16.pm long. A body when placed in left pan is observed to be 0.08 kg and when placed in right pan it is 0.086 kg. Find the correct weight of the body.     0.083 kg

34) Fill in the blanks:
a) Mechanical advantage is the ratio between___ to ___.
b) Mechanical advantage = ______ x velocity ratio.
c) Mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is _____
d) Mechanical advantage of a single movable Pulley is ____
e) In case of class I lever ____lies in between____ and____
f) In case of class II lever___ lies in between____ and ____
g) In case of class III lever____ lies in between____ and _____

35) State whether the following statement is true or false :
a) A simple machine can multiply force .
b) a simple machine can change the direction of applied force.
c) a simple machine can be used to increase the output energy.
d) output can never be greater than output.
e) Output is always less than the input.
f) A true balance is that whose beam remains horizontal when its pans are empty







Test paper (physics)
MACHINE 

1) Machine acts as a____multiplier.        
 
2) Mechanical advantage is ratio of____to effort .        

3) Ratio of output to input work is called ____.      
4) Displacement ratio is called___ ratio .  

5) The upper fixed Pulley is called____.      

6) The lower movable block is called____.    
7) Mechanical advantage of single movable Pulley is____.

8) Efficiency can be increased by making the machine____.    

9) Load is the____ force to be overcomed by the machine. 

10) Example for class 1 lever is____.     

11) External agency supplied to the machine to overcome the load is___.    

12) Efficiency of ____ machine is less than 100%.    

13) Solid rigid bar free to rotate about a fulcrum is called___.   

14) Efficiency of an ideal machine is ____.    

15) Mechanical advantage of single fixed and single movable pulley is ___.   

MACHINE 

1) Machine is a____
a) device b) tool c) instrument d) all of these 

2) Machine acts as a _____
a) force multiplier 
b) speed multiplier
c) Torque multiplier 
d) all of these 

3) Load is____
a) exerted by machine 
b) resistivity force to be overcome by machine
c) external agency supplied to the machine 
d) none of the above 

4) Effort is a____
a) exerted on machine 
b) supplied by wind 
c) external agency supplied to the machine
d) created by the machine

5) Mechanical advantage is ratio of ___
a) impure quantities
b) pure quantities 
c) similar quantities
d) dissimilar quantities 

6) Mechanical advantage being a ____ratio is a ____quantity.
a) cute, impure 
b) pure, irregular 
c) pure, unitless
d) impure, measurable 

7) Mechanical advantage is ratio of _____
a) load to effort
b) effort to load
c) useful effort to load 
d) useful load to useful effort 

8) Velocity ratio is the ratio of_____
a) velocity of girl to velocity of boy.
b) velocity of effort to velocity of load
c) velocity of load to velocity of effort 
d) none of these 

9) Velocity ratio is also called _____ ratio.
a) wonderful 
b) design 
c) displacement 
d) pure

10) Velocity ratio being a pure ratio is a ____ quantity 
a) smart 
b) meaningful 
c) unitless 
d) vector 

11) Efficiency is defined as_____
a)  Mechanical advantage/ velocity ratio
b) Mechanical advantage + velocity ratio 
c) Mechanical advantage - velocity ratio 
d) Mechanical advantage x velocity ratio 

12) Efficiency for a practical machine _____
a) greater than 1 
b) equal to one
c) less than 1 
d) not defined 

13) Increase in velocity ratio would ____ the efficiency.
a) decrease b) increse  c) not affect  d) none of these

14) Decrease in mechanical advantage would ____the efficiency.
a) increase  b) decrease c) not affect d) none of these

15) Efficiency is generally expressed as a____
a) fraction
b) decimal 
c) percentage 
d) none of these

16) Mechanical advantages for a lever is___
a) load/ effort 
b) effort arm/ load arm
c) load arm/ effort arm
d) both a and b 

17) The lever which has MA as less than 1____
a) Class I 
b) Class II 
c) Class III 
d) Class I and Class III 

18) The lever that has MA equal to, less than and greater than 1 is____
a) Class I 
b) Class II 
c) Class III 
d) Class IV 

19) Greater the effort arm, ____the force multiplication.
a) lesser 
b) greater
c) larger  d) both c and b

20) Change in design of the machine would____ the VR of the machine.
a) change 
b) alter
c) not affected d)  both a and b 

21) A claw hammer has MA____
a) all of the below 
b) less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) greater than 1

22) Example of class II lever____
a) wheel barrow 
b) nut cracker
c) lemon squeezer 
d) all of these

23) A single fixed pulley is a modified form of____
a) Class I lever
b) Class II lever 
c) Class III lever
d) Frisbee 

24) A single movable Pulley is a modified form of ____
a) Class I lever 
b) Class II lever 
c) class III lever 
d) none of these 

25) In a block and tackle system consisting of an odd number of pulleys, the number of pulleys in the block is____ more than the number of pulleys in the tackle.
a)  4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 

26) In a block and tackle system, the mechanical advantage is____
a) number of pulleys always
b) One less than the number of pulleys 
c) 2 total number of pulleys 
d) load/ effort 

27) In the block and tackle system of pulleys , the velocity ratio is____
a) one less than the total number of pulleys 
b) equal to the number of pulleys 
c) ratio of displacement of load to the displacement of effort.
d) none of the above 

28) Jibs, cranes and hoist are examples of ____
a) complex machines
b) sophisticated machines
c) block and tackle system
d) robotic machines 

29) The size of pulleys _____towards the load and _____towards rigid support.
a) decreases, increases
b) increases, decreases 
c) increases, increases
d) decreases, decreases

30) In an even number of pulleys , the string starts from the hook of ____block.
a) upper 
b) lower
c) both a and b 
c) none of these 












Test paper -1 Bio 

Circulatory system 

1) Write one function of white blood cell-     
2) Write odd one out:- spleen, Thymus, pancreas, tonsil.     

3) Given below is a diagram of the external features of the heart 
a) Name the part 1 to 6.
b) What happens if the coronary artery gets an internal clot ?
c)  Mention one structural difference between 5 and 4.

4) Differences between blood plasma and serum.

5) Name the blood vessels which enter and leave the kidney.

6) Abnormally large number of WBC's in the blood is usually indication of some infection in the blood. Explain.

7) Veins have valves at intervals in their inner lining whereas the arteries do not have valves , why ?

8) chlorophyll, Magnesium , photosynthesise , hemoglobin,  calcium.     
9) Why is it necessary to have fluids in and around many organs ?

10) The blood vessel which carries oxygenated blood to the heart is _____( aorta,  pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery).     

11) An artery which carries deoxygenated blood.     

12) Write the relation:
Right ventricle: Pulmonary artery:: left ventricle: ______.         

13) Name the living cells without nuclei.    








HYDROGEN CHLORIDE(1)


A) Answer the following:
1) Why is Hydrogen chloride not collected over water ?

2) Choose the letter A, B C or D to match the description given below:
A) Ammonia 
B) Hydrogen chloride
C) Hydrogen sulphide
D) Sulphur dioxide
This has gives a white precipitate when reacted with silver nitrate solution acidified with dilute nitric acid 

3) A colourless gas (G) is passed through a solution of silver nitrate, when a curdy white precipitate (P) is formed. The precipitate is insoluble in di. Nitric acid but soluble in Ammonia solution. Name G and P.

4) Why does hydrogen chloride fume in moist air ?

5) Hydrochloric acid is not very expensive. give reason.

6) Why is high temperature is avoided in the preparation of hydrogen chloride from sodium sulphate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

7) Conc. nitric acid is not used for the preparation of HCl. Why ?

8) Explain why the following statement is not correct ?
"Lead chloride can be prepared by adding dilute hydrochloric acid to lead sulphate solution.

9) From the following list of substances: ammonium chloride, ammonium nitrate, chlorine, dilute hydrochloric acid, iron, lead nitrate, manganese (IV) oxide, silver nitrate, sodium nitrate, Sodium and nitrite and sulphur-
 Choose those which meet the description given below:
 Two compounds whose aqueous solutions give white percipitate with dilute hydrochloric acid.


10) State what is observed when hydrochloric acid is added to Silver nitrate solution.


11) What do you observe when concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to lead (IV) oxide with the warming ?


12) What would you see when hydrogen chloride is mixed with Ammonia ?


13) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution.

14) Write balanced equation for the following reaction:
Red lead (trilead tetroxide) is warmed with concentrated hydrochloric acid.


15) Write balance chemical equation for the following reaction:
Zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

16) Select from the list given below (A to F), the one substance which matches the given description.
A.  Ammonia 
B. Copper oxide 
C. Copper sulphate 
D. hydrogen chloride 
E. hydrogen sulphide 
F. lead bromide
 This compound can be oxidised to chlorine.

17) Write a balanced equation for the following reaction:
 Sodium chloride from sodium carbonate solution and dilute hydrochloric acid.


F) COMPLETE AND BALANCE THE EQUATION: 

1) Pb₃O₄+ + 8HCl(con) --> 3PbCl₂

2) Zn+ 2HCl(dil)----->ZnCl₂

3) KCl + H₂SO₄(ᶜᵒⁿᶜ) -> .... + .....

4) Cu + HCl(dil) --> .... + ......

5) Cuo + HCl(dil) ---> ..... + .....

6) Cuo +[O]+ HCl(conc) --> 
             ...+ .... + ......
7) K₂O + HCl(dil) -> .... + .......

8) HCl <⁵⁰⁰ᶜ=> ...... + .......

9) HNO₃(conc)+ HCl(conc) -----> 
         ........ + ........ + ........

10) Pb(NO₃O)₂ + 2HCl(dil) --> ...

11) MnO₂(aq) + HCl --> ...+ ...+ ....

12) KMnO₄+ HCl(conc) --> 
          .....+ ..... + 8H₂O + Cl₂


C) NAME THE FOLLOWING :

1) Products obtained by passing Chlorine and sulphur dioxide together through water.

2) Drying agent which is used to dry Hydrogen chloride.


3) A gas Which yields dense white fumes when treated with Hydrogen chloride

4) The gas obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

5) The gas obtained by treating ferrous sulphide with Hydrochloric acid. 

6) Covalent compound Which becomes electrovalent when dissolved in water.

7) The anion present in the following: when compound A is warmed with Conc. Sulphuric acid gives a gas Which fumes in moist air and gives dense white fumes with Ammonia.

8) The lead compound that can be used to oxidise Hydrogen chloride to chlorine.

9) A solution which gives Chlorine on oxidation.

10) A substance that turns moist starch iodide paper blue.


D) T/F. CORRECT IF IT IS FALSE :

1) Hydrochloric acid is found in the stomach of mammals.   

2) Hydrogen chloride gas is obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

3) When moist blue litmus paper is introduced into a jar of HCL, it turns red.

4) HCL gas is not combustible but it supports combustion.

5) HCL gas partially ionized in an aqueous solution.

6) HCL acid is not used to remove rust from iron sheets.

7) HCL acid gives brown fumes of ammonium chloride with Ammonia.

8) In the laboratory, HCL gas is collected by downward displacement of air.

9) HCL gas is a colourless odourless and tasteless gas.

10) HCL gas is insoluble in water.

Each Questions carries 2 marks 

1) Identify the substances describe below.
a) Colourless liquid used for the preparation of aqua -regia; turns wet blue litmus red; reacts with silver nitrate solution forming a dense white precipitate .
b) Greenish yellow gas which combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen chloride gas.

2) How would you represent Hydrogen chloride and Hydrochloric acid by chemical formula? Why do they differ ?

3) What must be added to sodium chloride to obtain hydrogen chloride? 
b) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place above.

4) Select from the list below, the gas which matches the description given and answer the questions that follow:
       Ammonia, chlorine, HCL, Sulphur dioxide.
When gas C is mixed with gas B ( which turns moist red litmus to blue). dense white fumes are seen and there is no other product.
a) What is the name of gas B and gas C ?
b) What is the name of the product of the reaction between gas B and gas C ?

5) Manganese(IV) oxide, lead(IV) oxide and red lead (Pb₃O₄) react with concentrated hydrochloric acid liberating chlorine.
a) What is the common property being by these metal oxides ?
b) Write the equation for the reaction of concentratated Hydrochloric acid with Pb₃O₄. 

6) Write the observation and balanced equations for the following reactions:
Excess of ammonia hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by adding hydrochloride acid in silver nitrate solution.

7) Salts A and E undergo reaction (a) and (b) respectively. Identify the anion present in these salts on the basis of these reactions.
a) When Silver Nitrate solution is added to a solution of A, a white precipitate insoluble in dilute nitric acid, is formed.
b) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to E produced an effervescence. The gas produced turns lime water milky but does not affect acidified potassium dichromate solution.


8) The following series of reactions is carried out:
a) HCL is passed into cold water.
b) Ammonia is passed into the resulting solution.
c) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to the product of (b) and solution in the warmed.
c) Silver nitrate is added to the solution resulting from (c) (Assume that the sodium hydroxide is not in excess)
 Answer the question (i), (ii), (III) and about steps and respectively name (iv) about steps (a),(b), (c) and (d) respectively.
i) 1. Name the product.
    2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.
ii) 1. Name the product.
     2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.
iii) 1. Name the products.
      2. Which of the product/s is/are covalent?
      3. Write the equation for the reaction.
iv) 1. What would you see ?
      2. Write the equation for the reaction.




THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 

1) Name the following :
a) The liquid part of blood.
b) Tissue type to which blood belongs.
c) The mammalian blod cell lacking nucleus and mitochondria.
d) Increase in the number of eosinophils in blood.
e) Clotting within an intact blood vessel.
f) The instrument that detects the functioning of heart by the graphical record.
g) The fluid which excludes when blood clot.
h) The process by which WBCs engulf and ingest bacteria.
i) A vitamin required for clotting of blood.
j) The respiratory pigment contained in RBCs.
k) Any two organelles absent in mature RBCs.

2) Give the numerical values of the undermined sentences.
a) Average lifespan of RBCs is
b) Range of RBCs per cubic mm in a normal adult human female is.
c) Range of RBCs in an adult human male is
d) Approximate percentage of water in plasma is
e) Number of WBCs in adult human is
f) Neutrophils constitute about____ percent of total WBCs
g) There are about___ platelets per cubic mm of blood in an adult.
h) pH of blood is ____

3) Mention the function of each of the undermined structure:
 For example 
White blood cells -- phagot
On a similar pattern, Fill in the blanks in the following cases to represent relationship between structures and their special functional activities.
a) Blood Platelets 
b) Neutrophil 
c) Erythr
d) Pulmonary vein 
e) Pericardium 
f) Aorta
g) Lymphocytes 
h) The spleen 

4) Fill in the blanks 
a) ____ is blood plasma from which fibrinogen, the blood clotting protein has been removed.
b) fibrinogen, the blood clotting agent can be removed by ____
c) An increase in the number of WBCs in the blood is called____ and decrease in the number of WBCs is called ____.
d) Blood cells are manufactured in____ from ____.
e) Oxygen combines with Haemoglobin present in RBC to produce _____.
f) Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by____.
g) Arteries carry blood from ____ to ____.
h) Lymph contains ____ but takes ____ and ____
i) Number of heartbeats in an adult person is____.

5) Choose the correct options:
i) White blood cells engulf bacteria in a process called 
a) Diapedesis 
b) phagocytosis 
c) Active transport
d) passive transport 

ii) Which blood vessels carry blood from lungs to heart  ?
a) Pulmonary veins
b) coronary arteries 
c) coronary veins 
d) pulmonary arteriea

iii) pH range of blood is 
a) 2.3- 4.5 b) 8.9-9.5 c) 7.3-7.45 d) 0-1 

iv) In adult human, RBC has
a) No nucleus 
b) double nuclei 
c) bilobed nucleus 
d) multinuclei

v) In persons living at high altitudes, RBCs are
a) more in number 
b) less in number 
c) same in number 
d) destroyed suddenly 

vi) neutrophils engulf microbes by:
a) phagocytosis 
b) endocytosis 
c) exocytosis 
d) pinocytosis 

vii) Heptic portal vein, transport blood from :
a) stomach and intestine into liver 
b) Liver to heart
c) Heart to liver
d) intestine to liver

viii)  In man, systolic and diastolic pressure are about:
a)  120mm of Hg and 80 mm of Hg.
b) 80mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.
c) 120mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.
d) 80mm of Hg and 40 mm of Hg.

6) Match the column 
Column A 
a) Tricuspid valve 
b) Bicuspid valve 
c) Semilunar valves 
d) SA node
e) Pulmonary artery 

Column B 
i) Carry deoxygenated blood for oxygenation 
ii) conduct impulses 
iii) guards the opening between right auricle and right ventricle
iv) guards the opening between left auricle and left ventricle 
v) prevent back flow of blood from aorta.

7) Match the column 
Column A 
a) The liquid coming out of blood during clotting
b) relaxation of heart 
c) contraction of heart
d) the muscle that never becomes fatigue
e) hardening of arteries 

Column B 
i) cardiac muscles 
ii) diastole
iii) Systolic
iv) Arteriosclerosis
v) serum 

8) Define the following:
a) Lymph nodes 
b) Portal system
c) diostol 
d) Diapedesis 
e) pericardium 
f) Rh factor 

9) Complete the following Table by filling the blanks:
 organs  name of an artery or vein  way of transportation 
a) heart   pilluminary vein                  _____
b) ____    pulmonary artery          heart to lung
c) ____    renal artery                     _____
d) kidney  ____.        Kidney to posterior vena cava 
e) Liver   hepatic portal vein.      _____
f) ____      hepatic artery              ______


10) Why do the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood not mix up in the human heart ?

11) When are the sounds  LUBB and DUBB produced during the heartbeat ?

12) Why does the left ventricle has ahicker wall than the right ventricle ?

13) What do you mean by the double circulation of blood ?

14) Why is the systolic pressure higher than the diastolic pressure?

15) What is systematic circulation ?

16) Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of the following characteristics:
a) colour 
b) location 
c) composition 
d) platelets
e) flow

17) Give the reasons for the following:
a) Only veins and not the arteries are provided with valves .
b) The arteries are deep seated in the body.


18) Why does the blood not clot inside the body ?

19) Give a schematic representation of the process of blood clotting 

20) what are the function of the blood ?

21) why is it necessary to know the blood groups before transfusion.

22) What is hemophilia 

23) Name any lymph gland present in the human body. Write its function.

24) Define pulse. What is the pulse rate of a normal human adult ?

25) Enumerate any four difference between white blood cells and red blood cells .

26) What is the function of blood plasma ?

27) What are the function of hepatic artery ?

28) The figure given below represents the section of the human heart.
a) Name the parts number 1 to 8.
b) Which structures help in maintaining the direction of the flow of blood ?
c) To which organ/s does the blood vessels (labelled 3) carry blood?
d) What is the main difference in the quality of blood containing in part 6 and 7.

29) The following simplified diagram refers to the outline plan of circulation of blood in a mammal. Study the diagram and write the name of the blood vessels according to the given number.
a) Several hours after a meal containing a lot of protein, which vessel will contain highest concentration of Urea ?
b) Which vessel would contain the highest concentration of the amino acid and glucose soon after meal ?
c) Which vessel begin and ends in capillaries ?
e) Which vessel will contain the smallest number of red blood cells per unit volume of blood ?

30) The diagram below shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at points labelled A moves out into the spaces between the tissue cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
a) When the liquid from the blood is surrounding the cells, what is it called ?
b) Name any one important components of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out into the spaces .
c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid present in vessel X.

31) The diagram below represents a certain category of blood vessels showing the role of special structure in their walls :
a) Name the kind of blood vessels shown 
b) Name the structure shown inside the blood vessels .
c) What is the role of these structures?
d) Towards which side of the figure (top or bottom) is the heart located ?

32) The figure given below are cross sections of blood vessels:
a) identify the blood vessel A, B, C.
b) Name the party level 1-4.
c) Mention two structural differences between A and B.
d) Name the type of blood that flows (a) through A and (b) through B.
e) In which of the above vessels referred in(iv) does exchange of gases actually take place ?

33) The diagram below represents circulation in the human body, Answer the questions that follow:
a) Name the blood vessel labelled 1, 3, 6 and 7.
b) Name the blood vessel that supplies blood to the walls of the heart with oxygen.
c) Draw a neat labelled diagram, of the blood vessel numbered 2  as seen in a cross section.
d) Mention one structural difference between blood vessels numbered 4 and 5

Wednesday, 28 January 2026

C/8 26/27

BIOLOGY

F.M- 100: Time 2 hrs

1) Distinguish between the following pairs of terms: (write 1 point only).  (2 x 6)
a) feeding and nutrition 
b) dead and living things
c)  anabolism and catabolism 
d) entomology and ichthyology 
e) centrosome and chromosome.
f) prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell

2) Mention if the following statements that true or false :   (2x 6)
a) prokaryotic cells have larger ribosomes.
b) Eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
c) Amoeba is an example of Prokaryotes.
d) Bacteria have no nuclear membrane but possess chloroplasts.
e) Plants do not respire whereas animals do.
f) Animal show movement while the plants do not.
g) Phloem cells carry manufactured food from leaves to other parts.
h) The sclerenchyma consists of actively dividing cells.
i) Cartilage has no blood vessels or the nerves in it.
j) Perikaryon is the nucleus of a nerve cell.
k) Axons of nerve cells are very long.

3) Write the location and function of the following terms :  (2x 6)
a) meristematic tissue
b) parenchyma tissue 
c) lymph 
d) ribosomes 
e) ciliated epithelium 
f) nectaries

4) Name the following :     (2x6)
a) muscles present in the iris of the eyes.
b)  The science which aims to improve the human race.
c) The cell part which is composed of cellulose.
d) The plant that follows mound layering.
e) An example of neuter flower.
f) Extra whorl present in hibiscus flower.
g) a polyadelphous flower.
h) The plant cell lacking the cell wall, that is used in hybridization.
i) The process by which a new varieties is developed through cross pollination.
j) the portion of the plant which is used in the micropropagation.
k) Kinds of cells found in salivary gland
l) The category of plant tissues that have lost their ability to multiply.

5) Define the following terms :       (2 x 6)
a) Callus
b) biotechnology
c) heterostyly 
d) placenta 
e) grafting 
f) chlorenchyma

6) a) List the tissues found in human heart.
b) Can you consider a cluster of eggs as a tissue ?
c)  it is said that the protoplasm cannot be analysed chemically. why ?   (2+4+4)

7) a) can you think of any two movements occurring in our body while you are asleep ?
b) In what ways is a hen's egg living as well as a non living ?
c) Make a list of any four dead things you use. Name their source organisms .   (2+4+4)

8) a) Mention any two contrivances in flowers which favour cross pollination.
b) What is the function of the pollen tube? Explain it with the help of a diagram.
c) Write any two characteristics of water pollinated flower.    (2+4+4)

9) a) what is Manoeciuous plant? give example.
b) what is Bract ? explain with example.
c) draw the generalized arrangement of parts of a bisexual flower. Label it.   (2+4+4)











PHYSICS     (Final)
Marks-80
(Attempt all the questions of section A and section B)
 
SECTION A (40 marks)

1) Fill in the blanks:      (1 x 10= 10
a) If the weight of a body is equals to the buoyant force, it will ___ in the fluid.
b) Atmospheric pressure___as we move from sea level to higher altitude.
c) Biomass can be converted in to gaseous fuel called___.
d) The breaking up the nucleus of an atom into smaller nuclei is called ____.
e) ____ is a sure test for electrification.
f) Two unlike charges ___'each other.
g) A force produced by rubbing a combination against dry hair is called___.
h) An electromagnet is a ____magnet.
i) The current obtained from a battery or a cell is ___ current.
j) There is a very large____ around the earth.

2) Rewrite the following statement correctly   (1 x10=10)
a) Objects appear heavier  when kept immersed in a fluid.
b) Pressure exerted by the liquids on the sides of the containing vessel is called Buoyant force.
c) The problems using solar energy directly is that it is cool.
d) Renewable source of energy are also called irregular sources of energy.
e) Kighting conductor is made of ebonite .
f) Two uncharged bodies when rubbed together get charged because of induction.
g) Bromin is a non metal which is a good conductor of electricity.
h) Permanent magnets are used in electrical bell.
i) A step down transformer is used to increase the magnitude of direct current.
j) The magnetic lines of force around a current carrying straight conductor are straight line.
(Rewrite correctly only the underline words)

3) Differentiate between the following :    (2x 10=20)
Write the main points of differents only.
a) alternating current and direct current.
b) magnet and electromagnet.
c) Step-up transformer and step down transformer.
d) Conductor and insulator.
e) A glass rod rubbed with silk cloth and an ebonite rod rubbed with fair.
f) Renewable source of energy and non renewable energy.
g) Tidal energy and geothermal energy.
h) Fission and fusion.
i) conduction and convection 
j) Solids & liquid on the basis of arrangement of molecules.

Section - B (40 Marks)

4) Give reason for the following:    (2 x5=10)
a) Water has a tendency to form a spherical droplets .
b) A piece of iron sinks in water but large ships made up of iron float on water .
c) It is necessary to collect sunlight over a large areas to utilise its energy.
d) A lightning conducter is fixed at the top of a tall building.
e) Charged particles exert a force on one another.

5) Define these terms:-      (2 x5= 10)
a) Electrostatics 
b) electromagnetic induction 
c) Surface tension 
d) State the Pascal 's Law
e) State Archimedes Principle

6) a) Draw a labelled diagram of gold leaf electroscope.
b) Explain why a gold leaf electroscope has a glass case.
c) Describe an experiment show that two positively charged bodies repel each other.
d) How does lightning takes place ?     (3+2+3+2=10)

7) a) Give any three applications of electromagnets.
b) With the help of label diagram, explain the working of an electric bell.
c) How can the magnetic field of a current solenoid be decreased?      (3+5+2=10)

Tuesday, 2 December 2025

class X science

TRANSPORT OF FOOD MINERALS IN PLANTS


A) Name the following :
a) The membrane which allows the solvent to pass through it but not the solute.

b) The process by which solid, liquid and gases move from a place of higher concentration to a place of lower concentration.

c) The upward movement of water and minerals from roots towards the top of the plant.

d) The pull which helps in have conduction of water in case of tall trees.

e) The tissue which helps in conduction of water minerals in the plant.

f) An apparatus used to measure the rate of transpiration.

g) An antitranspirant.

h) A plant having hydathodes.

i) The tissue which helps in conduction of food in plants.

j) Name the disease caused due to deficiency of nitrogen nutrients in plants.

B) Choose the odd one from each of the following giving reason:
a) Osmosis, Diffusion, Active transport, Transpiration pull.
b) Meristematic zone, Shoot cap, Elongation zone, Maturation zone.
c) Conduction, Rranslocation, Transpiration , Ascent of sap.
d) Root pressure, Transpiration pull, Turgor pressure, Capillary force.
e) Egg-membrane, Parchment paper, Goat's bladder, Litmus Paper.
f) Cooling effect, Ascent of sap, Conduction of minerals,  Evaporation.
g) Stomata, Xylem , Lenticel, Hydathodes.
h) Sunlight, Temperature, Humidity , Hydathodes.
i) Tracheids, Teaches, Xylem parenchyma, Sieve plates.
j) Nitrogen , Phosphorus, Potassium , Cooper 


C) Fill in the blanks:
a) ____ tissue is involved in the transportation of water in plants.
b) The young growing tip of the root is protected by ____.
c) ____ occurs through a semi permeable membrane.
d) ____ is the major component of protoplasm present in a living cell.
e)A plant cell becomes ____ on absorbing water from the soil.
f) Root hairs absorb____ from the soil by active transport.
g) Upward movement of water takes place through _____.
h) ______system of plants absorb water and minerals from the soil.
i) _____ is the inflow of water molecules form an external solution into a cell.
j) A plasmolysed protoplasm swells photo when it is placed in ____ water.
k) Cactus does not have _____ transpiration.
l) Sunken stomata ____  the rate of transpiration.

D) Write true or false and correct the incorrect statements:
a) Osmosis plays an important role in the absorption of water by plants.
b) A semipermeable membrane allows the passage to only solvent molecules through it.
c) Root hairs do not help in absorption of water and minerals.
d) Water is responsible for developing turgor pressure in the cell.
e) Movement of molecules from the region of lower to that of higher concentration is called diffusion. 

E) Choose the correct answer:
1) Ascent of sap occurs due to:
a) root pressure b) transpiration pull c) capillary force  d) all of these 

2) Movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to the lower concentration through a membrane.
a) diffusion b) active c) osmosis d) all of these 

3) The pressure developed in the root due to continuous inflow water in it
a) Turgor pressure b) root pressure  c) transpiration pull d) none 

4) The upward movement of cell sap in the plants is called :
a) conduction b) absorption c) transpiration  d) none 

5) The tissue which helps in conduction of water and minerals in the plant:
a) Phloem b) Xylem c) vein d) none 







 

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 


 
A) Name the following:
a) Ductless glands which release their secretion into bloodstream .
b) which gland is called master gland ?
c) which gland is called emergency gland .
d) name the disease caused due to the dietary deficiency of iodine 
e) Name a gland having dual function 


B) Fill in the blanks :
a) deficiency of___ cause diabetes.
b) ____ is called stress hormone.
c)  Testes secrete____ in males.
d) _____ is called master gland.
e) _____ regulate the calcium and phosphorus in the ratio body.

C) Write true or false statement and correct the incorrect statements 
a) thyroxine hormone causes critination in early growing age.
b) pancreas releases emergency hormone, i.e, Adeline hormone
c) parathyroid glands regulate calcium and phosphorus balance in the body.
d) glucagon lowers blood sugar level.

D) Give one word for the following :
a) Flight or fight hormone.
b) chemical messenger in our body.
c) glands with duct
d) glands without duct.
e) it lowers the level of glucose in the blood
f) it raises the level of glucose in the blood.







CURRENT ELECTRICITY 

1) A conductor of resistance 4 Ω can pass a current up 2.5 A through it. Calculate the potential difference required across the conductor.        10V

2) Calculate the amount of work done in moving a charge of 5 C through a potential difference of 25V. What will be the potential difference if this amount of work is done in moving a charge of 10C ?       12.5V

3) A metallic wire of length 1m is stretched to double its length in such a way that there is no change in density of the wire . Calculate the ratio of the final resistance.     1:4

4) A wire of length 15m and uniform cross section of 6x 10⁻⁷m² has a resistance of 5Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the material of the wire.    2 x 10⁻⁷Ωm

5) When a potential difference of 4V is applied across the ends of a wire of 10m length, a current of 2A flows through it. Calculate 
a) the resistance per unit length of the wire.     0.2Ω m⁻¹
b) the resistance of 4m length of this wire.      0.8Ω

6) A battery supplies a current of 0.8 A through a 2Ω resistor and a current of 0.4A through a 5Ω resistor. Calculate the internal resistance of the battery.     1Ω

7) What will be the equivalent resistance of three resistors of 4Ω, 8Ω and 16 Ω if these are connected in 
a) series.    28Ω
b) parallel.      2.28Ω

8) A lamp of resistance 800 Ω, a fire alarm of resistance 30 Ω and a vacuum cleaner of resistance 200Ω are connected in parallel to the mains supply of 240 V. Calculate the current through each appliance and the total current supplied by the mains.    9.5A

9) The effective resistance of two resistors is 25Ω. If the resistance of one of the resistors is 10 Ω, what is the resistance of the other resistors ?     15Ω

10) The effecttive resistance of three resistors connected to a battery is 5 Ω. If R₁ = 10Ω, R₂ = 15Ω, what will be the value of R₃ ? Draw a circuit diagram with the flow of current across each resistor.      30Ω

11) A parallel pair of resistors of values 4Ω and 12 Ω are together connected in series with another resistors of value 3 Ω and battery of emf 24 V. Draw a circuit diagram and calculate the current across each resistor .        3A, 1A

12) The figure below shows
V-I graphs of two metallic conductors for series and parallel combination. Which graph represents parallel combination ?

13) The lengths of three conducting wires of same materials are in the ratio 1:2:3. The area of cross section of each wire is same, if these wires are joined in parallel across a battery, what will be the ratio of the currents in them ?     6:3:2

14) In the given circuit diagram,
the emf of the cell is 5 V and its an internal resistance is 2.5 Ω. Calculate the current flowing in the circuit.    0.67A

15) Find the current flowing through the given circuit connected to a cell of supply 5V. 
  3.75A

16) From the circuit flow diagram given below,
Calculate the current flowing through the circuit.      0.67A

17) Three resistors of 8Ω, 4 Ω and 2 Ω are connected together in such a way that the total resistance is greater than 8Ω but less than 10 Ω. Suggest a suitable arrangement of how these resistors can be possibly combined and calculate the total resistance.    9.33Ω

18) In the given diagram,
A₁, A₂ and A₃ are three ammeters of negligible resistance. The reading of ammeter A₃ is 1A. Calculate 
a) the readings of ammeter A₁ and A₂.    3A
b) the total resistance of the circuit.     2Ω

19) The diagram below
shows three resistors of 5Ω, 8Ω and 10Ω connected to a battery of emf 10V. Calculate 
a) the potential difference across the parallel resistors 8Ω and 10Ω.   4.7V
b) the current through 8Ω resistors.   0.59A

20) A cell of emf 2.5 V and internal resistance 1.5 Ω is connected to resistors of 5 Ω and 15Ω in series. Draw a circuit diagram and calculate 
a) the current in the circuit.   0.116A
b) the potential difference across each resistor.    1.74V
c) the total potential difference across the cell.     2.32V

21) An electric motor draws a current of 5 A from a 220V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy consumed in 2 hour.   7.92 x 10⁶J

22) A heater has a power of 1.1 kW at 220V.
a) Find the resistance of the heater.   44Ω
b) Calculate the energy in kWh consumed in a week if the heater is used daily for 4h.    30.8 kWh

23) An electric heater draws 5A of current for 10 minute when connected to 230V power supply. Find the heat energy developed.      690 kJ

24) Find the current flowing through an electric bulb rated as 100W, 220V when connected to a 110 V supply. What will be the power consumed now?    25W

25) Three bulbs, A, B and C, are connected in parallel across 110V source . The rating of bulb is 5oW, 110V,  bulb B is 20W,110 V and bulb C is 100 W, 110V
a) Calculate the current flowing in each bulb.  0.45A, 0.18A, 0.9A
b) Which bulb will glow the brightest ?    C

26) Two resistors with resistance R₁ = 5Ω and R₂=7Ω are connected in series across a battery of emf of 16V. Draw a circuit diagram and find
a) the electrical energy consumed by each resistor in 30 second.265.33J, 371.47 J
b) total power developed in the circuit.      21.28 W

27) In the previous example, if the resistors are connected in parallel instead of series, what would be the electrical energy consumed by each resistor. Draw a circuit diagram for the same.    1536 J, 1097.14 J

28) two bulbs are rated as 40W, 220 V and 40W, 110 V,  respectively. Compare the resistance of two bulbs.    4:1

29) A geyser is rated 1.5kW, 250V. It is connected to 250V mains. Calculate 
a) the current drawn by the geyser.     6A
b) electrical energy consumed in 10h in joules.     54 x 10⁶ J
c) cost of energy consumed at Rs3.50 per kWh.      Rs52.50

30)  Four tube lights of 40 W each, two fans of 100W each and three bulbs of 60W each operate on an average of 8h per day. If the cost of energy is Rs2.50 per kWh, calculate the monthly bill.      Rs324










PERIODIC PROPERTIES AND VARIATIONS OF PROPERTIES (PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL)

BOOSTER

* In every chemistry classroom and laboratory, you will see Periodic Table of the elements on the wall, because in learning chemistry and in solving chemistry problems, no other source of information is used as often. In its symbols and numbers, and most of all in its structure, the Periodic Table contains information about the chemical behaviour of the elements and about the masses, compositions and structures of their atoms.

* In the beginning of the development of chemistry only a few elements were known. But with the discovery of new elements their number went on increasing gradually and it became inconvenient to remember and study the chemistry of so many elements. This condition led to the necessity of classification of elements so as to facilitate the study of chemistry. The arrangement of the elements according to their similarities and dissimilarities resulted in the formation of Periodic Table . The periodic arrangement of known elements according to their properties in a tabular form is known as Periodic Table.

The Modern Periodic Law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

*  In the Modern Periodic Table , there are 7 Periods and 18 Groups .

* Groups I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII and 0 (zero) represent various Groups. Groups I to VII are divided in sub-groups A and B.

* Elements of zero Group are called Nobel gases and or inert gases.

* Electron shells increase progressively by one down a Group .

* Elements in the same Group have the same number of electrons in their outermost shells.  As a result, elements in the same Group have similar chemical properties.

*  Elements in the same Period have the same number of electron shells. Electrons in the outermost shell increases progressively by one across a Period.

Periodic properties and their Variations in Periods and Groups 
Atomic size or Atomic Radius: 
Atomic radius is the distance between the centre of the nucleus of an atom and its outermost shell containing the electrons. It is measured in Angstrom, abbreviated as A°. 1 A°= 10⁻¹⁰m. The atomic size of the elements decreases in a Period from left to right. The atomic size of elements increases from top to bottom in a Group .

Ionization Potential (I. P) or Ionization Energy (I. E):
Ionization potential is the amount of energy required to remove a loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom. it is measured in electron volt (eV). The energy required to remove the first electron is called first ionization potential. The energy required to remove the second electron is called the second ionization potential. Second ionisation potential is more than the first ionization potential. The ionization potential increases on moving from left to right in a Period. It decreases on moving from top to bottom in a Group .

Electron affinity(E. A) or Electron Gain Enthalpy: 
Electron affinity is the amount of energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous neutral atom. It is measured in electron volt (eV). Since energy liberated, we use minus (-1) . For example, the electron affinity of chlorine is -3.82 eV. The electron affinity increases in a Period on moving from left to right. It decreases in a Group when we move from top to bottom .

Electronegativity (E. N): Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract shared pair of electronr towards itself. Electronegativity increases across a Period. It decreases from top to bottom in a Group.

Metallic Character: It is the property of an atom to lose one or more electrons on heating. It decreases on moving left to right across a Period, and increasees from top to bottom on moving down a Group.

Non-metallic Character:  It is the property of an atom to gain one or more electrons in order to attain octate in their outermost shell, when supplied with energy. Non-metallic character increases in a Period as we move from left to right, and it decreases in a Group on moving down from top to bottom.

*  Alkali Metals : Alkali metals are those elements which follow immediately after the inert gases in the Periodic Table. They consist of 6 elements, Li( lithium), Na(sodium), K(potassium), Rb(Rubidium), Cs(Cesium) and Fr(Francium).

Physical Properties:
a) Commonly found in a combined state.
b) Soft and can be cut with a knife, except  Li(lithium).
c) Silvery-white and shining metals.
d) Excellent conductors of heat and electricity.
e) Emit electrons under the influence of light.
f) Low melting and boiling points.
g) Low density. ( the density increases on moving down the Group .)

Chemical properties:
a) Highly reactive.

b) React with water to form hydroxides with the liberation of hydrogen and heat.
For example, 2Na+ 2H₂O ---> 2NaOH + H₂ + Heat.

c) React with halogen to form a stable binary compound.
For example, 2Na + Cl₂ ---> 2NaCl.

d) React with hydrogen to form white crystalline compounds.
For example, 2Na + H₂ ---> 2NaH.

e) React with oxygen to form oxides.
For example, 4Na + O₂ ---> 2Na₂O.

f) React with non metals to form electrovalent compounds.
For example, Na+ Cl ---> NaCl.

g) Strong reducing agents.

Halogens:
Elements of Group VIIA are called halogens . They consist of 4 elements. F( fluorine), Cl( chlorine), Br(Bromine) , I(iodine).

Physical Properties:
a) Commonly occurs as salts.

b) Bad conductors of heat and electricity.

c) Atomic size increases on moving down the Group .

d) Electronegativity decreases on moving down the Group .

e) Electron affinity decreases on moving down the Group .

f) Melting and boiling points increases on moving down the Group .

Chemical properties:
a) Reactivity decreases on moving down the Group .

b) React with hydrogen to form covalent hydrides.
 For example, H₂ + I₂ ---> 2HI

c) React with non metals to form covalent compounds.
For example, 2P+ 3Cl₂ ---> 2PCl₃

d) React with metals to form metal halides.
For example, Ca + Cl₂ ---> CaCl₂

e) Strong oxidizing agents. The oxidising property decreases down the Group.



A) FILL IN THE BLANKS :

1) The serial number of an element in the pieriodic Table is also its____. (Atomic number /mass number ).

2) The metallic character_____in a Group as one moves from top to bottom. (Increases/decreases)

3) The metallic character____ in a Period as one moves from left to right. (Increases/decreases).

4) _____is the most active nonmetal.(Chlorine/ Iodine)

5) _____is the most active metal.(Magnesium/ sodium)

6) An increase in nuclear charge____ the tendency of an atom to accept electrons. (Increases/ decreases)

7) The atomic size____as one moves from left to right across a Period.(Increases/ decreases)

8) The element in Group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature is____. (F/ Cl/ Br)

9) Nuclear charge of an atom is the____(negative/positive) charge on the nucleus of an atom, equivalent to the atomic____(numbers/mass) of an atom.

10) Atomic size of neon is_____than the atomic size of fluorine.(More/ less)

11) With increase in nuclear charge the nuclear attraction for outer electron____(increasees/ decreases), Hence ionisation potential____(increases/ decreases). 

12) If an element has one electron in its outermost shell. Then it is likely to be____. (Non metallic/ metallic)

13) The Properties of elements are periodic functions of their____. (Atomic numbers/ mass numbers

14) The element below sodium in the same Group would be expected to have a___. (Lower / higher) electronegativity than sodium and the element above chlorine would be expected to have a_____(lower / higher) ionisation potential than chlorine.

15) On moving from left to right in a given Period, the number of shells___. (Remains the same/ increases/ decreases)

16) On moving down a Group, the number of valence electrons_____( remains the same/ increase/ decreases)



B) CHOOSE CORRECT OPTION:

1) The chemical properties of an element depends on its:
a) atomic mass
b) atomic number
c) atomic energy
d) atomic volume

2) Total number of vertical columns (Groups) in the Long Form of the Periodic Table is :
a) 8 b) 18 c) 17 d) 16

3) The element having the lowest ionisation potential in period 3 is:
a) Na b) K c) Mg d) A

4) The number of elements present in Period 3 is :
a) 6 b) 32 c) 18 d) 8

5) On going down a Group, the number of valence electrons.
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies irregularly

6) The number of Periods in the Long Form of Periodic Table is:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

7) On moving down a Group, the size of atoms :
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies irregularly

8) Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius ?
a) Cl⁻ b) K⁺ c) S²⁻ d) Ca²⁺

9) On moving from left to right in a Period the metallic character of elements:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies irregularly

10) The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is :
a) C > B > Be > Li
b) C > Be > B > Ki
c) B > C > Be > Li
d) Be > Li > B > C

11) Which halogen has the highest electron affinity ?
a) F b) Cl c) Be d) I

12) The most electronegative element in the Period Table is:
a) N b) O c) Cl d) F

13) Which has the smallest size?
a) Na⁺ b) Al³⁺ c) Mg²⁺ d) P⁵⁺

14) Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation potential in the Periodic Table?
a) F > O > N > C
b) O > F > N > C
c) O > N > F > C
d) C > N > O > F

15) The electron affinity for noble gases is likely to be:
a) high b) small c) zero d) Positive

16) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?
a) F b) O c) O⁻ d) Na⁺

17) The size of a positive ion is:
a) more than its atom.
b) less than its atom
c) equal to its atom
d) none of the above

18) Which one of the following is correct order of the size ?
a) I > I⁻> I⁺ 
b) I > I⁺> I⁻   
c) I⁺ > I⁻> I   
d) I⁻ > I > I⁺ 

19)The size of chloride ion (Cl⁻) is
a) smaller than chlorine atom
b) bigger than chlorine atom
c) equal to that of chlorine atom
d) none of the above

20) The ionic radii of N³⁻ , O²⁻ , F⁻ and Na⁺ follow the order
a) N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺
b) N³⁻ > Na⁺ > O²⁻ > F⁻  
c) Na⁺> O²⁻ > N³⁻ > F⁻  
d) O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > N³⁻



C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The element present in the first Period.      

2) The biggest atom in the third Period.    

3) A solid halogen.    

4) The smallest element of third Period.   

5) The family of elements to which chlorine belongs.   

6) The family of elements to which sodium belongs.     

7) The family of elements to which argon and neon belongs.    

8) Least electronegative element of halogen family.    

9) A non metal which has three electrons in its outermost shell.  

10) The smallest atom in the third Period.      

11) The least reactive elements in Group IA.   

12) The most metallic element in the third Period.  

13) The most nonmetallic element in the third Period. 

14) The element which is most electronegative in the third Period.   

15) A greenish yellow gas other than chlorine.   

16) The most abundant halide salt.     

17) The element which has the highest ionisation potential.  

18) The element of third Period which has least ionisation potential.    

19) The most electronegative element of second period.    

20) An element in period 3 with electronegativity 3.0.   

21) The element with the least ionisation potential in the 2nd period.     

22) The element which has the highest electron affinity in the third Period.    

23) The noble gas having an electronic configuration 2,8,8.  

24) The valency of elements in Group I.    

25) An element of group VIIA, solid at room temperature.        


D) TRUE/FALSE

1) The electron present in the outermost shell are called valence electrons.   

2) In a group, atomic and ionic radii decrease from top to bottom due to increase in the number of shells.     

3) The electron affinity of elements increases in a group from top to bottom and decreases along a Period from left to right.      

4) The amount of energy required to remove a loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated atom is called ionisation potential.      

5) Electron affinity is the property of an atom to attract electrons towards itself, when combined to form a compound.    

6) Lithium resembles radium and potassium in electropositive character and univalency.      

7) The element in a Group have consecutive atomic Numbers.      

8) On going down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table, the metallic character of elements increases.      

9) The tendency of an atom of an element to donate or lose electrons is called electropositivity.           

10) Iron is a non-metal.          


E) DEFINE:
1) Periods in Periodic table
2) Group in Periodic table
3) Periodicity

E) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:
1) What are Periods ?

2) How many electrones are present in the valency shell of the element with the atomic number 18 ?

3) Explain why electron affinity of an atoms increases from left to right along a Period in the Modern Periodic Table.

3) What happens in the number of valence electrons in the atoms of elements as we go down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

4) From amongst Be, B, and C, choose the element with the highest ionisation potential.

5) What is similar in the electronic structure of Li, Na, and K ?

6) Which of the following elements are in the same Group of the Periodic table ? Magnesium, Nitrogen, Beryllium, Sulphur 

7) Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original Periodic table ?
8) State the Periodic law on which Mendeleev's Periodic table was based ?

9) In the Long Form of the Periodic Table. the elements are arranged according to their mass numbers. Is this statement correct ? if not, correct it.

10) How could the atomic radius of a noblw gas compered with other elements in a Period ?

11) What similarity do halogen show in their molecular state ?

12) Why is ionization potential of O less that of N ?

13) Explain why the elements with low ionisation potential exhibit metallic properties.

14) Account for the difference in size of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ as Fe²⁺ = 0.76 A° and Fe³⁺ = 0.64 A°.

15) Give the formula of one species positively charged and one negativity charged that will be iso-electronic with Ne.

16) Mg²⁺ ion is smaller than O³ ion  althrough both are iso-electronic. Explain .
17) What is the probable formula of the oxide of silicon ? (Silicon occurs below carbon in the Periodic Table)

18) What would you expect the formula of a compared of hydrogen with an element I to be ? ( use I as the symbol of the element.)

19) How do the nature of oxides of the elements change on moving from top to bottom in a Group of the Periodic Table?
Give example.

20) What is the common feature of the electronic configuration of the elements at the end of Period 2 and Period 3 ?

21) if an element is in group 7(or group 7A). is it likely to be metallic or nonmetallic in character ?

22) What is meant by a group in a Periodic Table ?

23) theelectronegativities of the elements in period 3 of the Periodic Table are as follows with elements arranged in alphabetical order:
Al    Cl     Mg     Na      P      S       Si
1.5  3.0   1.2    0.9     2.1   2.5    1.8 
Arrange the elements in the order in which they occur in the Periodic Table from left to right. ( The group 1 element first, followed by the group 2 element and so on, up to Group 7.)

24) Predict the Group of an element X if its atomic number is 16.


10) Select the correct order of radii of three species Ca, Ca⁺ and Ca²⁺
a) Ca > Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺
b) Ca²⁺ > Ca⁺ > Ca
c) Ca⁺ > Ca > Ca²⁺ 
d) Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Ca
Assign suitable reason.


11) Electron affinities of two elements A and B are as follows:
A=3.79 eV and B= 3.56 eV 
Which of them will ionise more easily and why ?

12) How does the number of valence electrons vary on moving from left to right:
a) in the first Period of the Periodic Table?
b) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?
c) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

13) The elements lithium, sodium and potassium were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties.
a) What are those similar properties
b) What is the usual name of this Group or family.?

14) Which is larger, Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why?

15) Chlorine , bromine and iodine elements were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties:
a) What are those similar properties ?
b) What is the common name of this Group or family ?

16) In the following set of elements, one element does not belong to the set. Select this element.  Give reason in support of your answer.
Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium, Beryllium .

17) Consider the following elements: Na, Ca, Al, K, Mg, Li
a) Which of these elements belongs to the same Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?
b) Which of these elements belongs to the same Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?


18) What is the cause of periodicity of elements in the Periodic Table?

19) What are the following Groups known as?
a) Group IA
b) Group VIIA
c) Group Zero 

20) How did the following properties vary in a Period, say Period 3 ?
a) Atomic size
b) Metallic character
c) Non-metallic character
d) Ionisation potential 
e) Electron affinity 
f) Electronegativity

21) a) Name the elements of Period 3.
b) Which element in Period three is likely to react most violently with chlorine.
c) Of the 8 elements in Period 3, which is likely to form a compound of the formula XCl₃  with chlorine.

22) Match the following 
Column A 
a) Proton 
b) Sodium 
c) Barium 
d) Chlorine 
e) Electron
f)  Completed shell 

Column B 
i) An alkaline earth metal 
ii) halogen 
iii) noble gas 
iv) An alkaline metal 
v) Responsible for nuclear charge
vi) Occupied subshell 

23) Among the elements of the second Period (Li to Ne), pick out the element.
a) with the largest atomic size.
b) with the highest ionisation potential.
c) with highest electron affinity.
d) With highest electronegativity.
e) which is the most reactive metal.
f) which is the most reactive nonmetal.

24)a) How many Groups and Periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table ?
b) On what basis is an element placed in a particular Period in a Group ?
c) The electronic configuration of three elements A, B and C are as follows:
A-- 2   8    18    18     8    1
B-- 2   8    18    18     7
C-- 2   8    18.   32    18   8
Find the respective Period and Group to which each of them belongs.

25) For each of the following pairs, predict which one has a greater ionization potential and greater electron affinity ?
a) I, I⁻
b) B, C
c) Li, Li⁺

26) What is the number of elements in:
a)  first Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?
b) 2nd Period of the Modern Periodic Table  ?
c) 3rd Period of the Modern Periodic Table?

27) a) What are alkali metals ?
b) In which Group and Sub groups are they are placed ?
c) What is their valency ?
d) Why do they not occur free in nature?

28) This question refery to the elements of the Periodic Table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some of the elements are shown by letters, but the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.
3    4    5    6    7    8    9    10 
A    B    C   D    E    F    G    H 
11 12  13  14  15  16  17  18 
 I     J     K    L    M   N    O  P 
Which of these elements:
a) are noble gases ?
b) are halogens ?
c) are alkali metals ?
d) are elements with valency 4?

29) An element X belongs to Period 3 and Group II of the Periodic Table . State :
a) the number of valence electrons .
b) valency of the element.
c) is it metal or nonmetal.
d) the name of the element.

 

30) The atoms A and B have electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) and  (2,6) respectivaly.
a) to which Period do A and B belong ?
b) to which group do A and B belong ?
c) What are the valencies of A and B with respect to hydrogen ?
d) What is the formula of the compound of A and B ? Is the compound ionic or covalent in nature ?

31) An element X belongs to Period 2 and another element Y belongs to Group 15 of the Periodic Table.
a) What is the number of valence electrons in X ,?
b) What is Valency of X ?
c) What is the number of valence electrons in Y ?
d) What is the valency of Y?

32) In any vertical column of elements in the sub group A of the Periodic Table , as you go from top to bottom :
a) the elements become ____metallic (less /more)
b) the number of electronic shells ____ (increases/decreases)
c) The ionization potential ______. (decreases/ increases)
d) the electronegativity_______ (decreases/ increases).

33) a) What are noble gases ?
b) What is the speciality of the their outermost shells ?
c) in which group are they placed  ?
d) why is that Group referred to as Zero Group  ?
e) why are they referred to as inert gases ?

34) a) What are halogens ?
b) in which Group and Sub groups are they placed ?
c) What is their valency ?
d) Why are they called halogens ?
e) why do they not occur free nature ?

35) Arrange the elements of Group VIIA according to the given conditions:
a) increasing order of atomic size.
b) Increasing non metallic character.
c) increasing ionization potential.
d) increasing electron affinity.
e) decreasing electronegativity .

36) The electronic configuration of an elements T is 2, 8, 7.
a) What is the Group number of T ?
b) What is the Period number of T ?
c) How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T ?
d) What is the valency of T ?
e) is it a metal or nonmetal ?


37) Arrange the following elements as per the guidelines in brackets.
a) Cl, Mg, Na, P( in increasing order of atomic size)
b) Al, Cl, Na, S ( in increasing order of ionization potential)
c) Ar, He, Ne (in decreasing order of number of electronics shells).
d) C, Li, F, N, (in increasing order of electronegativity)
e) C, F, Li, O, (in increasing order of electron affinity)

38) The table given below shows the mass number and the number of neutrons in 4 elements -- P,Q, R, S
Elements:              P    Q    R     S 
Mass number:     12   20  23   35
No of neutrons:    6    10  12   18
a) Write down the atomic number of S.
b) Write down the electronic configuration of S.
c) To which Group S belongs ?
d) To  which Period S belongs ?
e) What will be the nature (ionic or covalent) of the compound formed by 
i) R and S
ii) P and S

39) The position of three elements X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table is as shown below:
Group 16     Group 17
     ---                   X
     ----                -----
      Y                   Z
a) What will be the valency of Z ?
b) What is the name of the family to which element Z  belongs ?
c) State whether Z is a metal or nonmetal.
d) will Z be larger or smaller than Y ?
e) State whether Z is more or less reactive than X.


40) Fill in the blanks:
a) Group 3A elements have____ electrons in their outermost shells.
b) Nitrogen has ____electrons in its outermost shell.
c) Group zero elements have_____ electrons in their outermost shells except ____.
d) The outermost shell electrons are also known as____ electrons.
e) When an atom of magnesium unites with another to form a compound. ____electrons of magnesium are primarily involved.


41) Question (a) to (e) refer to change in the properties of elements on moving left to right across a Period of the Periodic Table . For each property, choose the letter corresponding to the correct answer from choices (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
a) The non metallic character of the element:
i) decreases ii) increases iii) remain the same iv) depends on the Period 

b) The electronegativity :
i) depends on the member of valence electrons.
ii) remains the same
iii) decreases  iv) increases 

c) The ionization potential 
i) goes up and down 
ii) decreases iii) increases iv) remains the same 

d) The atomic size:
i) decreases ii) increases iii) remains the same iv) sometimes increasees and sometimes decreases 

e) The electron affinity of the elements in Group 1 to 7;
i) goes up and then down 
ii) decreases and then increases
iii) increases  iv) decreases 




F) REASON BEHIND:
1) Sodium is referred to as a normal element.

2) Sodium and potassium are placed in Group I.

3) Noble gases have zero electron affinity values. Explain ?

4) Why is larger Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why ?

5) Why is the electron affinity for F Less than that of Cl?

6) Why electron affinity of halogen is comparatively high. Give reason.

7) Ionisation potential of alkali metals is comparatively low.

8) Electronegativity of chlorine is higher than that of sulphur.  Why ?

9) Sodium and potassium are called alkali metals . Why ?

10) Why is chlorine more reactive than bromin ?

11) Why Potassium is more reactive than sodium.