20/10/24
THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
1) Name the following :
a) The liquid part of blood.
b) Tissue type to which blood belongs.
c) The mammalian blod cell lacking nucleus and mitochondria.
d) Increase in the number of eosinophils in blood.
e) Clotting within an intact blood vessel.
f) The instrument that detects the functioning of heart by the graphical record.
g) The fluid which excludes when blood clot.
h) The process by which WBCs engulf and ingest bacteria.
i) A vitamin required for clotting of blood.
j) The respiratory pigment contained in RBCs.
k) Any two organelles absent in mature RBCs.
2) Give the numerical values of the undermined sentences.
a) Average lifespan of RBCs is
b) Range of RBCs per cubic mm in a normal adult human female is.
c) Range of RBCs in an adult human male is
d) Approximate percentage of water in plasma is
e) Number of WBCs in adult human is
f) Neutrophils constitute about____ percent of total WBCs
g) There are about___ platelets per cubic mm of blood in an adult.
h) pH of blood is ____
3) Mention the function of each of the undermined structure:
For example
White blood cells -- phagot
On a similar pattern, Fill in the blanks in the following cases to represent relationship between structures and their special functional activities.
a) Blood Platelets
b) Neutrophil
c) Erythr
d) Pulmonary vein
e) Pericardium
f) Aorta
g) Lymphocytes
h) The spleen
4) Fill in the blanks
a) ____ is blood plasma from which fibrinogen, the blood clotting protein has been removed.
b) fibrinogen, the blood clotting agent can be removed by ____
c) An increase in the number of WBCs in the blood is called____ and decrease in the number of WBCs is called ____.
d) Blood cells are manufactured in____ from ____.
e) Oxygen combines with Haemoglobin present in RBC to produce _____.
f) Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by____.
g) Arteries carry blood from ____ to ____.
h) Lymph contains ____ but takes ____ and ____
i) Number of heartbeats in an adult person is____.
5) Choose the correct options:
i) White blood cells engulf bacteria in a process called
a) Diapedesis
b) phagocytosis
c) Active transport
d) passive transport
ii) Which blood vessels carry blood from lungs to heart ?
a) Pulmonary veins
b) coronary arteries
c) coronary veins
d) pulmonary arteriea
iii) pH range of blood is
a) 2.3- 4.5 b) 8.9-9.5 c) 7.3-7.45 d) 0-1
iv) In adult human, RBC has
a) No nucleus
b) double nuclei
c) bilobed nucleus
d) multinuclei
v) In persons living at high altitudes, RBCs are
a) more in number
b) less in number
c) same in number
d) destroyed suddenly
vi) neutrophils engulf microbes by:
a) phagocytosis
b) endocytosis
c) exocytosis
d) pinocytosis
vii) Heptic portal vein, transport blood from :
a) stomach and intestine into liver
b) Liver to heart
c) Heart to liver
d) intestine to liver
viii) In man, systolic and diastolic pressure are about:
a) 120mm of Hg and 80 mm of Hg.
b) 80mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.
c) 120mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg.
d) 80mm of Hg and 40 mm of Hg.
6) Match the column
Column A
a) Tricuspid valve
b) Bicuspid valve
c) Semilunar valves
d) SA node
e) Pulmonary artery
Column B
i) Carry deoxygenated blood for oxygenation
ii) conduct impulses
iii) guards the opening between right auricle and right ventricle
iv) guards the opening between left auricle and left ventricle
v) prevent back flow of blood from aorta.
7) Match the column
Column A
a) The liquid coming out of blood during clotting
b) relaxation of heart
c) contraction of heart
d) the muscle that never becomes fatigue
e) hardening of arteries
Column B
i) cardiac muscles
ii) diastole
iii) Systolic
iv) Arteriosclerosis
v) serum
8) Define the following:
a) Lymph nodes
b) Portal system
c) diostol
d) Diapedesis
e) pericardium
f) Rh factor
9) Complete the following Table by filling the blanks:
organs name of an artery or vein way of transportation
a) heart pilluminary vein _____
b) ____ pulmonary artery heart to lung
c) ____ renal artery _____
d) kidney ____. Kidney to posterior vena cava
e) Liver hepatic portal vein. _____
f) ____ hepatic artery ______
10) Why do the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood not mix up in the human heart ?
11) When are the sounds LUBB and DUBB produced during the heartbeat ?
12) Why does the left ventricle has ahicker wall than the right ventricle ?
13) What do you mean by the double circulation of blood ?
14) Why is the systolic pressure higher than the diastolic pressure?
15) What is systematic circulation ?
16) Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of the following characteristics:
a) colour
b) location
c) composition
d) platelets
e) flow
17) Give the reasons for the following:
a) Only veins and not the arteries are provided with valves .
b) The arteries are deep seated in the body.
18) Why does the blood not clot inside the body ?
19) Give a schematic representation of the process of blood clotting
20) what are the function of the blood ?
21) why is it necessary to know the blood groups before transfusion.
22) What is hemophilia
23) Name any lymph gland present in the human body. Write its function.
24) Define pulse. What is the pulse rate of a normal human adult ?
25) Enumerate any four difference between white blood cells and red blood cells .
26) What is the function of blood plasma ?
27) What are the function of hepatic artery ?
28) The figure given below represents the section of the human heart.
a) Name the parts number 1 to 8.
b) Which structures help in maintaining the direction of the flow of blood ?
c) To which organ/s does the blood vessels (labelled 3) carry blood?
d) What is the main difference in the quality of blood containing in part 6 and 7.
29) The following simplified diagram refers to the outline plan of circulation of blood in a mammal. Study the diagram and write the name of the blood vessels according to the given number.
a) Several hours after a meal containing a lot of protein, which vessel will contain highest concentration of Urea ?
b) Which vessel would contain the highest concentration of the amino acid and glucose soon after meal ?
c) Which vessel begin and ends in capillaries ?
e) Which vessel will contain the smallest number of red blood cells per unit volume of blood ?
30) The diagram below shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at points labelled A moves out into the spaces between the tissue cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
a) When the liquid from the blood is surrounding the cells, what is it called ?
b) Name any one important components of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out into the spaces .
c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid present in vessel X.
31) The diagram below represents a certain category of blood vessels showing the role of special structure in their walls :
a) Name the kind of blood vessels shown
b) Name the structure shown inside the blood vessels .
c) What is the role of these structures?
d) Towards which side of the figure (top or bottom) is the heart located ?
32) The figure given below are cross sections of blood vessels:
a) identify the blood vessel A, B, C.
b) Name the party level 1-4.
c) Mention two structural differences between A and B.
d) Name the type of blood that flows (a) through A and (b) through B.
e) In which of the above vessels referred in(iv) does exchange of gases actually take place ?
33) The diagram below represents circulation in the human body, Answer the questions that follow:
a) Name the blood vessel labelled 1, 3, 6 and 7.
b) Name the blood vessel that supplies blood to the walls of the heart with oxygen.
c) Draw a neat labelled diagram, of the blood vessel numbered 2 as seen in a cross section.
d) Mention one structural difference between blood vessels numbered 4 and 5.
18/10/24
REFRACTION OF LIGHT THROUGH A PLANE AND PRISM
1) a) What is refraction ?
b) Is it necessary that the ray of light must change its path during refraction ?
2) Draw a diagram showing a ray of light going from air to water and mark the following.
a) incident ray
b) refracted ray
c) angle of incidence
d) angle of refraction
e) normal to refracting surface.
3) A ray of light is incident normally on the surface of a glass slab. Complete the diagram and determine the values of the following.
a) angle of incidence
b) angle of refraction
4) frigure shows a ray of light going from medium (1) to (2).
mark the angles of incidence and that of refraction . Which of the two medii is optically denser .
5) State the law of refraction
6) Which of the following diagrams represent the correct refraction through a glass slab ?
7) a) How do you define refractive index of a medium ?
b) How do you define absolute refractive index of a medium?
8) How do you express refractive index of medium.
a) in terms of i and r ?
b) in terms of velocity of light ?
c) in terms of absolute refractive indices ?
9) Figure shows the bottom surface of a glass block silvered to act as a mirror. Which one of the following diagrams best represents the path of a light ray the enters the block through the top surface ?
10) An observer O, looking in to a pond, sees a small fish which appears to be as X shown in figure.
Which one of the positions A, B, C or D is nearest to the real position of the fish ?
11) A ray of light suffers refraction through a glass slab?
Which of the arrow represents the correct refracted ray?
12) Name a medium, if any, which has refractive index,
a) greater than one.
b) equal to one
c) less than 1.
13) a) Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3. Calculate,
i) refractive index of glass with respect to water.
ii) refractive index of water with respect to glass.
b) i) Write the formula to show the relationship between 'real depth' and 'apparent depth '.
ii) A well appears to be 4m deep. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, What is the actual death ?
14) a) Refractive index of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. Calculate the velocity of light in glass and water. Velocity of light and vacuum is 3 x 10⁸ m/s.
b) A ray of a light goes from air to medium X as shown in the figure.
Calculate the refractive index of medium X.
15) a) State principle of reversibility.
b) Prove that refractive index of water w.r.t. air (ᵃμω) and that of air w.r.t water (ʷμₐ) are related to each other by relation ᵃμω x ʷμₐ = 1
16) Draw a ray diagram showing refraction through a glass slab.
17) a) i)What is mean by, "the refractive index of glass in 1.5".
ii) Write the formula used to find the refractive index of glass.
b) A ray of light passes from air into a liquid. The angle of incidence is 25° while the angle of refraction is 15°. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.
18) A ray of light passes through a rectangular glass block as shown in figure.
a) i) Draw the normal to surface at the point of incidence.
ii) Find the angle of incidence.
iii) Find the angle of refraction.
iv) Hence calculate the refractive index of the block.
b) Complete the diagram to show the emergent ray from the block.
19) What is the relation between real depth and apparent depth of water pond ?
20) Actual depth of a water pond is 1.5 m. What does it appear to a man as seen from outside ? Refractive index of water is 4/3.
21) A ray AB suffers refraction through a glass slab.
Which of the ray represents the refracted ray ?
22) While studying refraction through a glass number of observations were taken for angles of incidence 'i' and angles of refraction 'r'. The graph related with this experiment. Which quantities are taken along the two axes ?
23) A pencil is dipped in to water. How does it appear from outside ? Draw the ray diagram.
24) A fish (full line) situated at the bottom of river appears to be (dotted line) as shown in figure.
i) give reason for the same.
ii) Draw the rare diagram showing this phenomenon .
iii) What are the following in terms of A, B and C ?
a) real depth
b) apparent depth
iv) How are real depth and apparent depth related with each other ?
25) Draw the diagram of a prism and mark the following:
a) refracting face.
b) refracting angle.
c) refracting edge.
26) Draw the course of a mono-chromatic ray undergoing refraction through a prism and mark the following:
a) Angle of incidence.
b) Angle of refraction.
c) Angle of deviation.
d) Angle of prism.
27) What is the relation by which the angle of incidence and angle of emergence, in case of a prism, are related to each other ?
28) Draw a graph between i and d for a prism and mark the angle of minimum deviation dₘ
29) Write the relation for refractive index of the material of a prism in terms of angle of prism ?
30) A ray of light is incident on one of the refracting faces of a prism.
Complete the diagram showing various angles for refraction through the prism.
31) If the ray of light passing through a prism suffers minimum deviation, answer the following.
a) What is relation between i and e ?
b) What is the value of i in terms of angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation ?
c) What is the value of angle of refraction in terms of angle of prism ?
d) What is the angle which refracted ray inside the prism makes with the base of prism ?
32) Which of two colours violet or red gets more deviated through the prism ?
33) a) A ray of light is incident on one of the shorter faces of a right angled isosceles prism.
Complete the diagram till the ray emerges out of the prism .
b) What is the angle between the incident ray and emergent ray ?
34) Draw the course of rays through a prismatic binocular indicating clearly the types of inversions involved .
35) Explain the following.
a) Refractive index of every material is always less than 1.
b) A ray incident normally on the surface of water goes undeviated. Discuss mathematically.
c) Twinkling of stars.
d) Sun becomes visible a little time before it actually comes above horizon .
e) Sun remains visible a little time after actual sunset.
36) a) What is total internal reflection ?
b) How do you define critical angle ?
c) How is critical angle of a medium related with its refractive index ?
d) A ray of light while going from denser to rarer medium is incident on the interface at critical Angle. What is the angle of refraction in the rarer medium?
37) Describe fire fountain experiment with the help of a diagram.
38) A coin C placed at the bottom of a glass, containing water, appears to be suspended in air at C.
Explain and draw the diagram the ray diagram.
39) The portion AB of the tube appears to be glittering when observed from outside. Explain and draw the ray diagram.
40) A ray of light AB travelling from glass to air, is incident at an angle of 60°. Trace the path of ray till it emerges out of glass.
Critical angle for glass to air is 42°.
41) Explain the concept of inferior mirage with the help of a ray diagram.
42) Explain the concept of superior mirage with the help of a ray diagram.
44) Fill in the blanks:
a) Refractive index of water is____
b) A ray of light goes from water to denser medium. The angle of refraction is ____ than the angle of incidence.
c) The bottom of water appears to be____ when observed from outside.
d) Refractive index of a medium is the ratio between____ depth to the ___depth.
e) Total internal reflection is observed only if the light goes from___ to medium .
f) Greater the refractive index of a medium ___' is the value of critical angle.
45) State whether the following statements are true or false:
a) As a result of refraction a ray of light must change its path.
b) in case a ray of light goes from water to air, angle of refraction is greater than the angle of incidence.
c) In case a ray of light goes from air to glass, angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence.
d) Refractive index of air with respect to glass is less than 1.
e) For a ray, incident from denser medium at critical Angle on the interface, angle of refraction in the rare medium is zero.
f) Phenomenon of total internal reflection takes place if the light goes from rarer to denser medium.
10/10/24
IONIC AND COVALENT BONDING
1) For which of the following ionic compounds no ion has octate ?
a) LiH b) CaO c) NaCl d) MgCl₂.
2) The solid state of which the following compounds in not composed of molecules ?
a) sugar b) glucose c) sodium fliuoride d) hydrogen chloride.
3) In which of the following compounds there is no existence of molecules ?
a) hydrogen chloride b) calcium oxide c) Methane d) Ammonia
4) Solid state of which of the following compounds is compose a ions.
a) sodium chloride b) hydrogen chloride c) naphthalene d) glucose
5) In which of the following a covalent bond is present?
a) Hydrogen chloride b) sodium chloride c) lithium hydride d) calcium oxide
6) Which statement is false about covalent compounds ?
a) they are non electrolytes.
b) chemical reactions between them occurs slowly .
c) these are usual liquid, gaseous or soft solids.
d) none.
7) Which one of the following is a Covalent molecule ?
a) MgCl₂ b) CaO c) NaCl d) CH₄
8) The type of bond that can be formed between elements of group 1 and 17 is-
a) covalent b) non-covalent c) polar covalent d) ionic
9) _____ of an element is the number of valence electrons, lost, gained or shared by one atom of the element to attain stable electronic configuration similar to its nearest element in the periodic table.
a) atomic number b) mass number c) valency d) none.
10) The covalent compound which is widely used for daily domestic purpose is-
a) alum b) water c) washing soap d) washing soda.
11) Which molecules among the following contains triple bond ?
a) CH₄ b) C₂H₄ c) C₆H₆ d) C₂H₂.
12) How many covalent bonds can possibili be formed between two atoms of nitrogen
a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3.
13) Which one of the following ionic compounds is insoluble in water ?
a) CH₃COOH b) NaNO₃ c) CuSO₄ d) CuCO₃
14) Which one of the following contains covalent double bond?
a) CO₂ b) NH₃ c) H₂O d)CH₄
15) What type of chemical bonding is formed by actual transparence of electrons.
a) electrovalent b)!covalent
c) depends on the number of valence electrons
d) none
16) which statement is false about electrovalent compounds?
a) they are formed by strong attractive electrostatic forces between ions opposite charge
b) they are usually solid
c) they are electrolytes d) none.
17) How many electrons does a hydride ion contain ?
a) two b) 3 c) 0 d) 4 d) 2
18) Which one of the following is an ionic compound ?
a) table salt b) table sugar c) acid d) petrol.
19) which one of the following covalent compounds possesses high melting points ?
a) SiO₂ b) C₃H₈ c) C₆H₆ d) CO₂
SHORT QUESTIONS
1) Show the conventional representation of H₂O molecules by 'dash' sign.
2) The electronic configuration of hydride ion is (H⁻) is like the electronic configuration of the atom of which element ?
3) Draw the Lewis dot diagram of H₂ molecule.
4) Give example of covalent liquid. water
5) between chloroform and the sodium chloride which is not soluble in water?
6) Draw the Lewis dot structure of N₂ molecule.(atomic number of N is 7)
7) What is used as a cathode in electroplating silver over a copper spoon ?
8) Give example of a compound whose aqueous solution is a weak electrolye.
9) Draw Lewis dot diagram of F₂ molecule. (F= 9)
10) Name an electrovalent compound.
11) Name the type of valency where electrons are shared.
12) Name a covalent compound.
13) Name a compound which has both electrovalent and covalent bonds.
14) What type of compound is found by the combination of Na and F ?
15) Define valence electron.
16) who introduced dot symbols to represent the valence electrons in an atom ?
17) which is the nearest inert gas in Hydrogen ?
18) Which gases covalent compound conducts electricity by onising water?
19) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in solid state ?
20) Name a compound with a single covalent bond which is liquid at normal temperature and also known as universal solvent .
21) How many loan electron pairs are present in nitrogen ?
22) Give one property hydrogen chloride which agrees with it being a covalent compound.
23) What do you mean by valency orbit (or shell)?
24) What is the type of Valency that result from sharing of electrons pair or pairs between two atoms ?
25) What kind of elements have a tendency to form covalent bonds ?
26) What is octet configuration ?
27) Name a covalent compound is becomes electrovalent when dissolved in water.
28) What type of covalent compounds dissociate into ions and conduct electricity ?
29) Give an example of a substance having carbon -carbon (C-C) covalent bond.
30) By which type of chemical bond does carbon combine with hydrogen to form methane ?
31) in which type of bond electron shift occurs ?
32) why are electrovalent compound journally solid ?
33) covalent compounds are soluble in polar solvent. Why are sugar and glucose like covalent compounds soluble in water ?
9/10/24
Current Electricity
1) Charge Apne electron is-
a) -3.2 x 10⁻¹⁹C
b) -1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C
c) 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C
d) 3.2 x 10⁻¹⁹C
2) If the resistance(R) of the conductor and time of flow of current in the conductor(t) remain unchanged, the relation between the heat produced(H) in the conductor and flow of current(I) is
a) H ∞ I b) H ∞ 1/I² c) H ∞ I² d) H ∞ 1/I
3) If 12C of charge flows through a conductor of 2 minutes, the electric current is
a) 6 amperes b) 0.1 amperes c) 24 amperes d) 10 amperes
4) Coulomb's law related to electric charges is applicable when of the two charges
a) one is point, one is spherical
b) both the spherical
c) one is point, one extended
d) both are points
5) The characteristics of a fuse wire are
a) high resistance, high melting point
b) low resistance, low melting point
c) low rest, high melting point
d) high resistance, low melting point
6) Temperature remaining unchanged, if the potential difference between the two ends of a conductor is V and the current through the conductor is I, which of the following is true?
a) V∞ I b) V∞ I² c) V∞ 1/I d) V∞ 1/I²
7) The relation among electromotive force (V), work (W) and chart(Q) is
a) Q= WV b) Q= V/W c) Q= V/W² d) Q= W/V
8) Which of the units given below is the SI unit of resistance ?
a) volt b) ampere c) coulumb d) ohm
9) In domestic electric circuit the fuse wire is connected to which of the following ?
a) earth line b) live line c) neutral line d) both line and neutral line
10) Which of the following physical quantities represents ampere ?
a) coulumb . second b) volt.ohm⁻¹ c) volt.ohm d) volt⁻¹.ohm
11) Resistivity of which of the following decreases with increase in temperature ?
a) conductor b) semiconductor c) super conductor d) insulator
12) With increase in temperature, the resistivity of metallic condr
a) does not increase b) increse c) does not decrease d) decrease
13) Which principle is abided by Lenz's law ?
a) conservation of energy
b) conservation of mass
c) conservation of momentum
d) conservation of charge
14) a6 potential difference of 20 volts applied across the ends of a conductor enables 20 coulumbs charge flow through it in 5 seconds. What is the resistance of the conductor ?
a) 3 ohms b) 4 ohms c) 5 ohms d) 6 ohms
15) The emf of a simple voltaic cell is ___ volts.
a) 1.08 b) 2.36 c) 3.46 d) 7.78
16) commercial unit of electric energy is
a) BOT b) volt c) coulumb d) ampere
17) The core of an electromagnet is made of
a) alnico b) steel c) soft iron d) none
18) Material of a fuse wire is
a) copper b) an alloy c) semiconductor d) an insulator
19) In electric motor electric energy is converted to ____ energy.
a) mechanical b) sound c) heat d) chemical
20) The SI unit of potential is
a) ampere b) volt c) gauss d) Siemens
21) The product of the total number of turns in a solenoid and strength of current in ampere is called
a) reverse ampere
b) ampere turn
c) pol strength d) none
22) Chemical energy Converts to___ energy in a voltaic cell.
a) sound b) electrical c) heat d) nuclear
23) The unit of potential difference is
a) joule b) volt c) ampere d) coulumb
24) Same current flows through two conductors. If the resistance of one is 4 time than that of the other, then the ratio of potential difference established in the two is
a) 4:1 b) 1:4 c) 8 : 1 d) 1:16
25) What magnitude of current flows through a conductor of resistance 8 ohms when it is connected to a battery of emf 2 volts ?
a) 16 ampere b) 0.25 ampere c) 5 ampere d) 10 ampere
26) What is the effective resistance of the resistors 2 ohms, 4 ohms and 5 ohms connected in parallel ?
a) 11 ohms b) 2 ohms c) 4 ohm d) 1.05 ohms
27) in a Circuit 2 ohm and 3 ohm resistors are connected in series to the parallel arrangements of 2 ohm and 3 ohm resistors. What is the resistance in the circuit ?
a) 6ohm b) 6.2 ohm c) 6 ohm d) 15ohm
28) The colour of the earthing wire is
a) black or green
b) green or yellow
c) yellow or blue
d)!green or black
29) Which quantity express the work done by an electrical instrument ?
a) I²R b) I²Rt c) I²Rt/J d) VI
30) 1 volt is equals to
a) 1C/1J b) 1J/1C c) 1A/1J d) 1J/1A
31) With increase in temperature, the resistance of the semiconductor.
a) increases b) decreases c) remain the same d) becomes half of its value
32) The filament in an electric lamp has____ resistance.
a) high b) medium c) low d) none
33) 1 HP is
a) 476 W b) 746 W c) 764 W d) 647 W
34) 1 BOT is
a) 1W-h b) 1kWh c) 1MWh d) 1mWh
35) Equivalent resistance of two resistance 3 ohm and 6 ohm connected in parallel will be
a) 3ohm b) 6ohm c) 4.5ohm d) 2ohm
36) Electric power is expressed by-
a) VI b) V²I c) VI² d) VIT
37) The unit of current is
a) joule b) volt c) ampere d) coulumb
38) Unit of charge in SI system is
a) coulumb b) ampere c) Henry d) ohm
39) 0.55 ampere current flow through an electric bulb of 400 ohm resistance when it is connected in a line of electric supply. What is the emf of the line ?
a) 550 volts b) 440 volts c) 220 volts d) 1320 volts
SHORT QUESTIONS
1) What is the SI unit of electric charge ?
2) What is the unit of electrical conductance ?
3) What are the constituent of fuse wire ?
4) Kilowatt - hour is the unit of which physical quantity ?
5) Name a machine where electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy.
6) Apart from the Live wire, what are the two other wires in the household circuit.
7) A thin wire a thick wire of the same conducting material have the same length. Which one of them will carry more current when the connected to the same potential difference ?
8) Give one example of semiconductor
9) How does the resistance of a semiconductor change with increase of temperature
10) Which type of energy transformed to electrical energy in a Dynamo ?
11) What will be the change in the motion of a barlows with if the direction of the current is reversed ?
12) How much work has to be done when one coulumb of charge is taken against a potential difference of one volt ?
13) Mention one use of ammeter
14) How much charge is flown through a circuit if a current of 0.2A flows for 2 seconds in that circuit
15) Write the name of one non metal which is a good conductor of electricity
16) State the energy transformation in Barlows wheel
17) What is electrical cell
18) What type of transformation of energy takes place in the electric cell ?
19) What is the principle unit of electric power ?
20) What transformation of energy takes place in an electric motor ?
21) Which one of the two bulbs 60W and 100W will glow better when connected in parallel under the same potential difference ?
22) Name the instrument used for detecting the current in an electric circuit.
23) What is the colour of the live wire
24) What material of wire is used in electric heater ?
25) define temperature coefficient.
26) Name two substances which are good conductors of electricity
27) What is a Rheostat
28) What will happen to Barlow's wheel if the amount of current is increased ?
29) Write the full form of LED
30) How can the energy of a motor be increased ?
31) what type of combination is used in domestic circuit ?
32) Name two non-ohmic substances .
33) What is non-ohmii circuit
34) Name two device in which effect of current is utilised.
35) Write the full form of CFL
8/10/24
A) Complete the following sentence by choosing the worlds from the given:
( electrons, pressure, four , -1.6 x 19⁻¹⁹, Carbon, electron emmission, neutral, 9.1 x ⁻³¹, one, work function or threshold energy)
1) The process of emitting out the free electrons from the surface of a metal is called ___
2) The energy required just to take the electron out of a metal surface is called____
3) When an α-particle is emitted from an element, its mass number decreases by ____
4) When a β-particle is emmited from an element, its atomic number increases by ___
5) The mass of a β-particle is____ kg.
6) An atom is electrically ____
7) β-rays exert mechanical____.
8) The charge on a β-particle is ____coulomb.
9) The atomic number of a radioactive elements is not changed when it emits ____.
10) The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is equal to the number of___.
B) State whether true or false also correct the first statements :
1) The maximum amount of energy required to amit electrons from a metal surface is called work function of that metal.
2) Lower the work function of a metal, low is the rate of emission of electrons from its surface.
3) The rate of emission electrons from a metal surface is inversely proportional to the temperature of the metal surface.
4) The atoms of the same element which have the same atomic number but differ in mass numbers are called isobars.
5) Radioactivity is a nuclear phenomena.
6) β-emission producing the isotope of the same element.
7) The penetting power of α-particle is more than that of β-particles.
8) Out of α, β and γ radiation , α-particles are most penetrating.
QUESTIONS
1) What are α-particles β-particles and γ-rays composed of ?
2)Arrange α, β and γ-rays in order of increasing ionizing power.
3) Arrange α, β and γ-rays in decreasing order of their penetrating power.
4) which one of α-particles, β-particles or γ-rays has the least penetating power ?
5) State two properties which a substance used as a thermodic emitter should process.
6) Why are materials of high melting points preferred as thermionic cathode materials ?
7) What happens to the atomic number of an element when an α-particle is emitted?.
8) What happens to the atomic number of an elements when β-particle is emmited?
9) What happens to the atomic number of an element when an γ-rays is emitted?
10) What happens to the mass number of an element when an α-particle is emitted?
11) What happens to the mass number of an element when β-particle is emmited?
12) What happens to the mass number of an element when a γ-ray is emitted ?
13) How are γ-rays produced ?
14) What is speed of γ- rays ? Are they deflected by the electrostatic field ?
15) Does the composition of a nuclei change if it emits γ-rays.
16) Who discovered the phenomena of radioactivity ?
17) Give four examples of radioactive substances.
18) Which radioactive substance was discovered first of all ?
19) Which part of an atom is responsible for radioactivity ?
20) What kind of nuclear reaction takes place in a nucleus when a β-particle is emitted?
21) The element ²⁴₁₁Na changes to magnesium by the emission of a β-particle. Write down the symbolic equation for the β-emission.
22) State giving reasons, whether the following nuclear disintegration are allowed or not (star indicates an excited state).
23) complete the reaction:
a) ¹⁴₇N + ⁴₂He ---> O+ ¹₁H
24) Complete the question to show the effect of the emission of an α-particle from a radioactive atom. Write down the atomic numbers and a mass numbers of X and Y.
a) ²¹⁸₈₄Po --> X + ⁴₂He
b) ²³⁰₉₀Th ---> Y + ⁴₂He
25) An isotope of uranium ²³⁸₉₂U is radioactive and changes into thorium 90 by the emission of an alpha particle. Write a symbolic equation for this decay process.
26) Why do Isotopes have the same chemical properties ?
27) What information does the binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus convey regarding its stability ?
28) why do isobars have different chemical properties ?
29) Complete the following reaction using the appropriate subscrpt or superscript where missing:
₉₂U + ¹₀n ---> ¹⁴⁸Ba + ₃₆Kr+ 3¹₀n
30) What is thermionic emission?
31) Name two factors on which the rate of emission of thermionic depends.
32) In the nuclear reaction given below, nucleus X changes to another nucleus Y.
²²⁶₈₈X ---> Y + α + energy
What are the atomic and mass number of Y?
33) Name the gas formed when an α-particle acquires two electrons.
34) What is the effect on the motion of an α-particle when it passes through a region containing a magnetic field ?
35) An α-particle absorbs an electrons. What does it change to ?
36) Name one device in which the cathode ray tube is used.
37) An atomic nucleus denoted by ᴬₓX emits an α-particle. Write an equation to show the formation of the daughter product.
38) What is radioactivity?
39) What are the beta particles and gamma rays?
40) A radioactive substances is oxidised. What change would you expect to takes place in the nature of its radioactivity ? Give a reason for your answer.
41) Name the particles given out during radioactive decay.
42) Which radiation or particles from radioactivity produces maximum biological damage ?
43) ²⁷₁₂Mg ----ᵝ---> Al ---ᵞ-->
In the above nuclear reaction ²⁷₁₂ Mg emits a β-particle and is transformed to aluminium. Write the mass number and the atomic number of aluminium.
44) Aluminium emits a γ-ray. What is the resulting nucleus ?
45) An element X changes to another element Y with the emission of beta particles. Write down the equation showing changes in the nucleus. Take the proton number and mass number of X, as Z and A respectively.
D) 1) Thermionic emission is the:
a) emission of electrons from a metal surface by heating
b) emission of particles from a radioactive source
c) bombardment of a metal target by electrons
d) emission of electrons by a metal surface due to incidence light.
2) The minimum amount of energy required to emit electrons from a metal surface is called:
a) ionization energy
b) dissociation energy
c) cohesive energy
d) work function
3) A radioactive substance emits out radiations:
a) α, β and γ simultaneously
b) in the order α, β and γ one by one .
c) at one time α and β, and then γ.
d) α and γ, or β and γ
4) A Radioactivity source emits three types of radiations. The radiation which travel with the speed of light are:
a) α-particles
b) β-particles
c) γ-rays d) none
5) Beta rays are:
a) a stream of electromagnetic radiation from the anode.
b) a stream of negatively charged particles
c) a stream of electromagnetic radiation from anode to cathode
d) The radiation of high Ionizing power but unable to penetrate through matter.
6) Which of following radiations is the least penetrating?
a) α-particle b) β-particle c) X-rays d) γ-rays
7) Which one is most penetrating?
a) α-particle b) β-particles c) γ-rays d) neutrons
8) Which one of the following statements about α-particles and β-particles is correct?
a) they carry equal amount of charge
b) each α-particle has two times the mass of a β-particle
c) only α-particle can cause ionization
d) Both α-particle and β-particle can be deflected by a magnetic field when they are in motion.
9) The mass of an electron is:
a) zero b) less than that of a person
c) equal to that of a helium atom
d) greater than that of a neutron
10) An element Y has mass number 238 and atomic number 92. It emits an α-particle forming an rX. X can be represented by:
²³⁴₉₀X b) ²³⁶₉₀X c) ²³⁵₉₁X d) ²³⁸₉₂X
11) neutron have:
a) a double positive charge
b) a negative charge
c) a single positive charge
d) no electric charge
12) A Radioactive nuclide ²²⁶₈₆Ra decays by emission of two α-particles, one β-particle and two γ-rays. Which of the following is the resulting nuclide X?
a) ²²³₈₃X b) ²¹⁸₈₃X c) ²¹⁸₈₄X d) ²¹⁷₈₅X
13) An element Y has mass number 239 and atomic number 92. It emits a β-particle forming an element X. X can be represented by:
a) ²³⁹₉₁X b) ²³⁹₉₂X c) ²³⁹₉₃X d) ²³⁸₉₂X
14) Which of the following radiations suffers maximum deflection in a magnetic field?
a) α-particles b) β-particles c) X-rays d) γ-rays
15) Isotopes are atoms
a) of diffrent elements
b) with the same nuclear charge
c) with different nuclear charge
d)
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
A) FILL IN THE BLANKS.
17) Figure shows
a battery having an emf of 9 V and internal resistance of 0.6Ω, connected to three resistors A, B and C, Calculate the correct in each resistor. 1.08A, 0.72A
calculate:
1) Rate of flow of charge is called___.(current/resistance)
2) The flow of current is due to the motion of____.(Protons/electrons)
3) The work done in moving a positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of_____.(resistance/potential difference)
4) The current is____ proportional to potential difference and___proportional to resistance.(Directly/inversely)
5) The SI unit of current is ____.(Coulumb/ampere)
6) The combined resistance of any number of resistors connected in____is equal to the sum of the individual resistors.(Parallel/series)
7) The SI unit of potential difference is ____.(Watt/volt)
8) A cell converts____energy into____energy.(electrical/chemical)
9) The specific resistance does not depend on the___of a conductor.(temperature/dimensions)
10) The SI unit of conductance is _____.(ohm/ohm⁻¹)
11) The SI unit of resistance is_____. (Ohm/mho)
12) E. M. F of a cell is potential difference in___circuit.(a close/an open)
13) If n equal resistance are put in parallel, the total resistance is equal to___. ((Rn/R/n)(reciprocal/same (
14) The SI unit of resistivity is ____. (Ohm/ohm-m)
15) Conductivity is____of resistivity.(parallel/reciprocal)
B) State whether True or False. Also correct the false statement.
a) Potential difference between two points is less than the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the other.
b) The emf of a cell depends on the shape and the distance between the electrodes.
c) A good conductor of electricity offers more resistance.
d) The resistance of a wire decreases with the increase in its temperature.
e) it is advantages to join the cells in series only if the internal resistance of each cell is high energy compared to external resistance.
C) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:
1) What is mean by the term electric current ? what is its SI unit ?
2) By what name is the physical quantity coulumb per second called ?
3) Is a wire carrying current charged?
4) State whether electric current is a vector quantity or scalar quantity.
5) Define an empier of current.
6) Electric field is applied across a conductor from north to south direction. Give the direction of drifting of electrons.
7) Is potential a vector or scalar quantity.
8) What is the SI unit of potential difference
9) What is meant by the saying that potential at a point is 1 volt.
10) By what other name is joule/coulumb called?
11) State the relation between the potential difference, work done and charge moved.
12) Define the term 'resistance' Give the SI unit.
13) How does the resistance change with the temperature in a conductor ?
14) What are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends ?
15) A wire is stretched to twice its original length. Is its resistance change or not ? if yes, by what factor does its resistance change?
16) What do you understand by the term 'internal resistance' of a cell ?
17) Differentiate between resistance and specific resistance.
18) Define electrical resistivity of a material ?
19) On what factor does the resistivity of a wire depend ?
20) Which will have higher resistivity, a conductor or an insulator ?
21) State the order of resistivity of a metal, a semiconductor and an insulator.
22) A wire P is stretched to double of its length. What is the new resistivity ?
23) Why is an alloy manganin used to make standard resistance ?
24) What is the necessary condition for a conductor to obey Ohm's law ?
25) State the conditions under which the Ohm's law holds good.
26) you are given three resistance of 1 ohm, 2 ohm, and 3 ohm. How will you combine them to get an equivalent resistance of
a) 6 ohm.
b) 6/11 ohm.
27) Write an expression for the equivalent resistance R of three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ joined in:
a) parallel
b) series
28) You have resistors of values 2 ohm, 3 ohm and 5 ohm. How will you join them to so that the total resistance is less than 2 ohm ?
29) Write an expression for the resistance of conducting wire in terms of it's length and area of cross section.
30) Mention two factors on which internal resistance of a cell depends.
D) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1) State when it is most advantage to connect cells :
a) in series
b) in parallel
2) How does the resistance of the wire depend on its length ? Give a reason to your answer.
3) What are the limitation of Ohm's Law ?
4) What are ohmic and non-ohmic conductors ? Give one example of each and draw the graph to show their current-voltage relationship.
OR
What are Ohmic and non-ohmic resistance ? Give two examples of each
5) On what factors does the internal resistance of a cell depend ?
6) Manganin and Eureka are used for making standard resistances . Explain .
7) What do you understand by the term 'series circuit'?
8) Give three characteristic of a series circuit.
9) What do you understand by the term 'parallel circuit'?
10) Give three characteristics of a parallel circuit.
11) Why is not advisable to keep the cells connected in parallel when not in use ?
12) Why should the internal resistance of a cell be low ?
13) What is meant by e.m.f. of a cell ? In what unit is expressed ?
14) Explain why the potential difference across the terminals of a cell is more in an open circuit and it is reduced in a closed circuit.
OR
Explain why is the potential difference across the terminals of a cell less than its e.m.f. when a current is drawn from it.
15) On what factors that does the resistance of a conductor depend ?
OR
Does the resistivity depend upon the dimensions of a conductor ?
16) State Ohm's law.
17) What is the difference between e.m.f and the terminal voltage of a cell ?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) The electric current is due to the flow of :
A) positive charges only
b) negative charges only
c) both positive and negative charges
d) neutral particles only
2) The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of:
a) current b) potential difference c) resistance d) power
3) The device used for measuring potential difference is known as:
a) potentiometer b) ammeter c) galvanometer d) voltmeter
4) Which one of the following is the SI unit of electric charge?
a) watt b) ohm c) ampere d) coulumb
5) Which of the following is an Ohmic resistance ?
a) diode b) germanium c) diamond d) nichrome
6) Ohm's law is applicable to :
a) discharge of electricity through gases
b) diode valve
c) all metallic conductors
d) Ohmic conductors
7) In a circuit containing two unequal resistors connected in parallel:
a) the current is the same of both the resistors.
b) the current is larger in larger resistors.
c) the voltage drop is the same across both the resistors.
d) the voltage drop is large across large resistor.
8) When the length of conductor is doubled , the resistance of the conductor will:
a) remain the same
b) double in value
c) become half
d) become four times.
9) Conductivity is the reciprocal of:
a) resistance
b) specific resistance
c) current density
d) current
10) The length of a conductor is halved. Its conductance will be:
a) halved b) unchanged c) doubled d) quadrupled
11) Which of the following statement does not represent Ohm's law:
a) current/potential difference =constant
b) potential difference/current = constant
c) potential difference = current x resistance
d) current = resistance x potential difference
12) The resistivity of a wire depend on:
a) the length of wire
b) the area of the cross section of wire
c) the nature of the material of wire
d) all of the above three factors.
13) The SI unit of Resistivity is :
a) ohm b) ohm/m c) ohm x m d) mho
14) If a wire is stretched to make its length 3 times, its resistance will become:
a) three times b) one third c) nine times d) one ninth.
15) When the temperature of a metallic conductor is increased, its resistance:
a) always decreases
b) always increases
c) may increase or decrease
d) remains the same.
16) Potential at the surface of the charged body:
a) is the same all over the surface
b) depends on mass
c) depends on the shape of the surface
d) none of them
17) An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r. The current in the circuit is maximum when:
a) R> r b) R< r c) R= r d) R= 2r
18) The specific resistance of any known material is not affected by change in:
a) temperature b) pressure c) applied magnetic field d) dimensions
19) For which of the following substances , resistance decreases with temperature ?
a) copper b) Mercury c) Carbon d) platinum
20) The equivalent resistance in series combination is:
a) smaller than the larger resistance.
b) larger than the largest resistance.
c) smaller than the smaller resistance.
d) larger than the smallest resistance.
21) Four cells each of e.m.f are joined in parallel to form a battery. The equivalent e.m.f of the battery will be :
a) 4E b) E/4 c) E d) zero
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1) The voltage across 3 Ω resistance is 6V. How large is the current ? 2A
2) What is the resistance of a filament lamp when a voltage of 3V across it causes a current of 0.5A ? 6Ω
3) Four resistors of resistance 0.5 Ω, 1.5 Ω, 4Ω and 6 Ω are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f. 6V and negligible internal resistance. Calculate
a) the current drawn from cell. 0.5A
b) p.d. at the end of each resistor. 0.25V, 0.75V, 2V, 3V
4) Five resistors each of 3 Ω, are connected as shown in figure.
Calculate the resistance:
a) between the points P and Q. 2Ω
b) between the points X and Y . 8Ω
5) Study the circuit diagram carefully and calculate:
a) the current in main circuit. 1.80A
b) the current in each of the resistors in parallel circuit. 1.2A, 0.6A, 1.2A, 0.6A
6) Figure shows a circuit diagram containing 12 cells,
each of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.25 Ω. Calculate
a) total internal resistance. 3Ω
b) total emf. 18V
c) total external resistance. 9Ω
d) reading shown by ammeter. 1.5A
e) current in 12Ω and 8Ω resistors. 0.75A
f) p.d. across 2.2Ω resistors . 3.30V
g) drop in potential across the terminals of battery. 4.5V
7) For the combination of resistors as shown in the circuit,
find the equivalent resistance between
a) A and B. 2.25Ω
b) C and D. 8.25Ω
8) Four resistances are connected as shown in figure. ar potential difference is applied between the points P and S.
a) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points Q and the R. 1.2Ω
b) What is the equivalent resistance between the points P and S ? 6.2Ω
c) If the current flowing through the 3Ω resistance is 2A, what is the current through the 2Ω resistance ? 3A
d) What is the current through 4Ω resistance. 5A
e) What is the current through the 1Ω resistance ? 5A
f) What is the potential difference between P and S? 31 volts
9) Figure shows a circuit diagram having a battery of 24V and negligible internal resistance. 
Calculate
a) reading ammeter. 2A
b) reading of V₁ , V₂, V₃. 3V, 4V, 17V
10) Carefully study the circuit diagram shown below
and calculate the value of resistors x. 11Ω
11) A cell of EMF 1.8V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected in a series with an ammeter of resistance 0.7Ω and a resistor of 4.5Ω as shown in figure 
a) What would be the reading of ammeter ? 0.25A
b) What is the potential difference across the terminals of the cell ? 1.3V
12) A battery of emf 3V is connected in series with an ammeter, a 10 Ω coil of wire and with a parallel combination of resistances of 3 Ω and 6 Ω. Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement. What is the :
a) resistance of the parallel combination ? 2Ω
b) reading on the ammeter? 0.25A
c) potential difference across the 3Ω resistors ? 0.5V
d) current flowing through 3Ω resistors ? 0.17A
13) A cell supplies a current 0.6A through a 2Ω coil and a current of 0.3A through a 8Ω coil . Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the cell. 3.6V, 4Ω
14) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points X and Y
in the network shown below: 1Ω
15) In the given figure
A, B and C are three ammeter. The ammeter B reads 0.5A. (All the ammeters have negligible resistance). Calculate
a) the reading in ammeter A and C. 1.5A
b) the total resistance of the circuit. 4Ω
16) Calculate the resistance between point X and Y in the network shown below. 0.71Ω
18) Calculate the equivalent resistance in the following combination of resistors r₁, r₂, r₃, r₄. 
R= {(r₁+ r₂)r₃ + (r₁+ r₂+ r₃)r₄/(r₃ + r₄)
19) Four cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω are connected in series. The combination is connected in series to an ammeter of negligible resistance, a 1.6 Ω resistor and unknown resistor R₁. The currenr in the circuit is 2A.
Draw a labelled circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate the total resistance in a circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate:
a) the total resistance in the circuit. (2+ R₁)Ω
b) the total emf. 8 volts
c) the value of R₁. 4Ω
d) the potential difference across R₁. 4V
20) Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 2 Ω in parallel are connected to a cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.3 Ω. Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement and calculate the current drawn from the cell. 1.0A
21) Given below is the circuit diagram
in which three resistance of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected to a cell of EMF 2V and internal resistane 0.5Ω.
a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit . 2.0Ω
b) What is the reading of the ammeter ? 1A
c) What will be the ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in series with the given cell ? 1.33A
22) The following circuit diagram shows
three resistor 2Ω, 4Ω and R Ω connected to a battery of EMF of 2V and internal resistance 3 Ω. A main current of 0.25A flows through the circuit.
a) What is the potential difference across the 4Ω resistors. 1V
b) Calculate the potential difference across the internal resistance of the cell. 0.75V
c) What is the potential difference across the R Ω or 2Ω resistors? 0.25V
d) Calculate the value of R. 2Ω
23) In the figure shown below,
calculate:
a) the value of combined resistances of 40 ohm and R, using the reading of the two metres. 10Ω
b) the value of R. 13.3Ω
c) the current flowing through R. 0.3A
24) A cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 10 ohms is connected to a resistors of 5 ohms, with an ammeter in series( see figure).
What is the reading of the ammeter ? 0.1A
25) Four cells, each of the EMF 1.5 V and internal resistance 2.0 ohms are connected in parallel. The battery of cells is connected to an external resistance of 2.5 ohms. Calculate :
a) The total resistance of the circuit. 3Ω
b) the current flowing in the external circuit, and the reading of the ammeter. 0.5A
c) the drop in potential across the terminals of the cells . 0.25V
26) With reference to the diagram given below,
a) the equivalent resistance between P and Q. 2.4Ω
b) the reading of ammeter . 1.66A
27) Four resistance 2.0 Ω if each are joined end to end to form a square ABCD. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination between two adjacent corners. 1.5Ω
Paper 3
1) Which among the following materials is not a very good conductor of electricity ?
a) copper b) silver c) platinum d) iron
2) Which of these substances acts as a non-ohmic resistors ?
a) nichrome wire
b) tungaten filament
c) copper wire
d) aluminium filament
3) if the resistance of a copper wire of certain length is R, then on doubling the length, its resistance :
a) will get doubled
b) will become halved
c) will become quadrupled
d) will become 1/4 th
4) The resistance offered by a conductor is directly proportion to its:
a) length
b) area of cross section
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
5) With increase in temperature, the resistivity of manganin :
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unchanged
d) any of these
6) Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel across a cell. Which of the following statements is true ?
a) current flowing through a smaller resistance is higher.
b) current flowing through larger resistance is higher.
c) current flowing through both the resistances is equal.
d) current can be higher in any resistance depending on the EMF of the cell.
7) In a series combination of resistors :
a) the equivalent resistance is reduced
b) the potential difference across each register is same
c) the current across each resistor is same
d) both b and c
8) The equivalent resistance of three resistors , each of 3 Ω resistance, when joined in parallel combination is:
a) 1Ω b) 3Ω c) 6Ω d) 9 Ω
9) Current is the rate of flow of _____per unit time.
a) charge b) free electrons c) total electrons d) both a and b
10) The SI unit of current is _____
a) ampere b) volt c) kiloampere d) none of these
11) 1mA is equal to ____ampere
a) 10 ampere
b) 10⁻³ ampere
c) 10⁻⁶ ampere
d) 10³ ampere
12) Resistance is the opposition of flow of _____through a conductor.
a) free charges
b) protons
c) ions
d) none of these
13) SI unit of resistance is____
a) ohm meter b) mho c) Ohm d) siemen
14) Ohm's law is the relationship between_____ and_____
a) pressure, volume
b) volume, temperature
c) voltage, current
d) resistance, current
15) Ohm's law,____ is directly proportional to____ keeping____ constant.
a) voltage, current, temperature
b) current, potential difference, temperature
c) temperature, voltage ,current
d) pressure, volume, temperature
16) ohmic conductors are conductors which ____Ohm's law.
a) accept b) disobey c) neglect d) obey
17) Slope of voltage v/s current plot gives_____.
a) resistance b) conductance c) conductivity d) resistivity
18) slope of voltage v/s current graph is variable in___
a) conductors
b) Ohmic resistor
c) super conductor
d) non-ohmic conductors
19) Super conductors are ____
a) substance with infinity resistance
b) substances with zero resistance
c) substances with the large conductance
d) substances with zero conductance
20) The slope of voltage v/s current graph_____ in series circuit.
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains constant
d) varies
21) The slop of current v/s voltage graph_____ in parallel circuit.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is constant
d) cannot predict
22) For a given material of wire if length is doubled its area of cross section____
a) increases
b) decreases
c) 1/4th the original area
d) halved the original length
23) Specific resistance is _____to the length of conductor.
a) independent
b) dependent
c) directly proportional
d) inversely proportional
24) Electrical energy consumed by an appliance is measured in___
a) kilowatt sec
b) kilowatt sec meter
c) kilowatt hour
d) watt hour
25) Electrical energy is ____
a) Power in kW, Time in hour
b) Power in kilovolt, Time in hour
c) Power in kilovolt ampere, Time in hour
d) both a and c
26) In series combination_____ is constant.
a) potential difference
b) current
c) internal resistance
d) total resistance
27) In parallel combination____ is split up.
a) current b) potential difference c) temperature d) pressure
28) For battery conductivity ____combination of resistance is preferred.
a) series
b) complicated
c) parallel
d) unique
29) one watt-hour is equals to :
a) 36J b) 360 J c) 3600 J d) 36000 J
30) An electric bulb is rated 100W, 220V. The resistance of the filament of the bulb when it is glowing is:
a) 2.2Ω b) 0.45Ω c) 45.45 Ω d) 484 Ω
31) 1 megawatt is equals to :
a) 10⁻³W b) 10³W c) 10⁻⁶W d) 10⁶ W
32) Which of the following expression is incorrect for electrical energy ?
a) QV b) VI c) I²Rt d) V²t/R
33) The rating of a fan is 80W, 250V. The current flowing through it is :
a) 0.32A b) 3.12A c) 25.6 A d) none
Question Paper 1
Time 30 minutes. Marks: 20M
Section 1
(All questions are compulsory)
1a) Differentiate between conductance and resistance of a wire. 2
b) A refrigerator is marked 80 W and 220V. How much energy does it consuming in one day if on an average it is used for 20 hours per day ? 2
c) Calculate the value of resistance which must be connected to 15Ω resistance to provide an effective resistance of 6 Ω. 2
d) State Ohm's kaw as applicable to ohmic conductors? 2
e) An electric circuit has its key open as a result in an open circuit. Is the value of resistance offered by the zero or infinite. Justify? 2
Section 2
(Attempt any one question out of two)
2a) Calculate the equivalent resistance between terminal A and B in the following circuit diagram: 4
b) An architect's studio has following appliances run on an average for 8 hours per day. 5 CFL tubes of 30W each , 3 Aircons on 75 W each, one coffee blender of 15 W and 1 overhead projector of 2.5 HP. Find the cost of electricity bill in the month of April if cost of electricity is 1.50 per KVAh. (Given 1 H. P= 750W). 3
c) Give reasons for the following: 3
a) electricians are used rubber gloves while handling electric wiring system.
b) Thick wires used in the heads of an electric radiator ?
3) a) State Four points of difference between electromotive force and potential difference. 4
b) 30 bulbs are connected in series. if one bulb is fused and the remaining 29 are again reconnected in series. Will the light increase or decrease in the room? justify. 3
c) An electric bulb is rated 100W, 250V. What does this statement imply ? also calculate the current the bulb would draw if connected to a 250V supply? 3
A) FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1) The faster the coil, the___ the voltage produced by a generator.(lesser/greater)
2) A ____ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.(dynamo/d.c. motor)
3) An a.c generator has_____ . (a split rings commutator/two full rings)
4) A transformer is always used in ___ current circuit.(direct/alternating)
5) A step-up transformer converts a ____ alternating voltage to a____alternating voltage.(low/high)
6) In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the____coil are more than the number of turns in the___ coil.(primary/secondary)
7) In a step-down transformer, the ratio of number of turns in secondary coil to the number of turns in primary coil is____ than one. (less/more)
B) TRUE OR FALSE
1) A current cannot produce a magnetic field.
2) A temporary magnet is made from steel.
3) A device by which electrical energy can be converted into mechanical energy is called a Dynamo.
4) Magnetic strength of an electromagnet (I- or U-shaped) can be decreased by increasing the number of turns of insulated wire.
5) A d.c motor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
6) The magnetic field set up by a current carrying conductor acts at an angle of 180° to the direction of flow of current.
7) A transformer is a device that increases or decreases the voltage of an alternating electric current.
8) In a step up transformer, the primary coil has more number than the secondary coil.
C) CHOOSE the correct answer:
1) In an electric motor, the energy transformation is:
A) from electrical to chemical
B) from chemical to light
C) from mechanical to electrical.
D) from electrical to mechanical
2) When a current flows in a wire, it creates :
A) an electric field outside
B) a magnetic field around it.
C) both electric and magnetic fields.
D) neither electric field nor magnetic field.
3) When a straight conductor is carrying an electric current:
A) there are Circular magnetic lines of force around it.
B) there are no magnetic lines of force near it.
C) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor along the direction of current.
D) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor opposite to the direction of current.
4) Magnetic lines of force:
a) cannot intersect at all.
b) intersect within the magnet.
c) intersect only at south and north poles .
d) intersect at neutral point only
5) The magnetic lines of force, inside a current-carrying solenoid, are:
a) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
b) perpendicular to the axis and equidistant from each other.
c) circular and do not intersect each other.
d) circular at the ends but are parallel to the axis inside the solenoid.
6) A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid:
a) will become zero
b) will decrease
c) will increase
d) will remain unaffected
7) A electric generator actually acts as:
A) a source of electric charge
B) a source of heat energy
C) an electromagnet
D) a converter of energy.
8) The direction of induced current is obtained by:
A) Fleming's left hand rule
B) Maxwell's left hand rule
C) Ampere's rule
D) Fleming's right hand rule
9) Electromagnetic induction is involved in:
A) charging a body with a positive charge.
B) production of current by relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
C) rotation of the coil of an electric motor.
D) generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid.
10) For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be:
a) soft iron b) steel c) brass d) laminated Steel strips
11) Which of the following has its working based on Electromagnetic induction?
A) Ammemeter. B) Voltameter
C) Transformer. D) Galvanometer
D) QUESTIONS)
1) When can an electric charge give rise to a magnetic field ?
2) Why is a magnetic needle deflected when it is placed near a current carrying conductor?
3) Do the magnetic lines of force change their direction with the change in direction of current?
4) State the unit of magnetic field in terms of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
5) State the pattern of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor.
6) What is an electric motor ?
7) State the principle on which a simple d.c motor works?
8) On what factors does the magnitude of induced e.m.f. depends ?
9) What energy conservation takes place in a generator?
10) what is transformer?
11) Give one application of electromagnetes.
12) Name the principle on which functioning of a transformer depends.
13) what is the function of a step up transformer?
14) Can a transformer work when it is connected to a d.c. source?
15) State two ways of increasing the speed of rotation of a d.c. motor.
16) State the transformation of energy which takes place in a generator when a current is drawn from it.
17) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.
Increasing the current through the solenoid.
18) State two ways which the e.m.f. in an a.c generator can be increased.
19) State the function of a split ring in d.c. motor.
20) State a law which determines the direction of a magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.
21) State Fleming's right hand rule.
22) Why does the field of the centre of the coil carrying current is in clockwise and anticlockwise direction ?
23) What effect will be there on a magnetic compass when it is brought near a current carrying solenoid? Justify your answer.
24) State two dissimilarities between a d.c. motor and an a.c. generator.
23) State two characteristics of the primary coil of a step up transformer when compared to the secondary coil.
24) With reference to a d.c. motor state:
a) the energy change that takes place.
b) the principle on which it operates.
25) state the main difference between a step up and a step down transformer.
Question Based on Diagrams
1) Draw a representative diagram of a d.c. motor. Label the following in your diagram:
a) the field magnet
b) the armature
c) commutators
d) wire brush
2) Draw the diagram of step up and step down Transformers.
3) Diagram shows schematically part of a step-down transformer.
Draw the complete diagram in your answer sheet.
4) Figure shows a circuit containing as coil wound on a long and thin hollow cardboard tube. Copy the diagram. 
a) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.
b) Draw the magnetic lines of force inside the coil and also show their directions.
c) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.
5)i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of an a.c. generator.
ii) What is the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the coil when its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field?
6) the following diagram show two straight wires carrying current.
Copy the diagram and draw the pattern of the lines of the force around them and mark the directions .
7) The diagram shows at coil connected to a centre zero galvanometer G. The galvanometer shows a deflection to the right when the N-pole of a powerful magnets is moved to the right as shown:
i) Explain why the deflection occurs in the galvanometer ?
ii) does the direction of the current in the coil appear clockwise or anticlockwise viewed from the end A?
iii) State the observation in G both the coil is moved away from N.
iv) State the observation in G when, both the coil and the magnet, are moved to the right at the same speed.
8) Draw a labelled diagram to show the various components of a step up transformer.
9) Draw a labelled of an a.c. generator.
11/9/24
A) FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1) The faster the coil, the___ the voltage produced by a generator.(lesser/greater)
2) A ____ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.(dynamo/d.c. motor)
3) An a.c generator has_____ . (a split rings commutator/two full rings)
4) A transformer is always used in ___ current circuit.(direct/alternating)
5) A step-up transformer converts a ____ alternating voltage to a____alternating voltage.(low/high)
6) In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the____coil are more than the number of turns in the___ coil.(primary/secondary)
7) In a step-down transformer, the ratio of number of turns in secondary coil to the number of turns in primary coil is____ than one. (less/more)
B) TRUE OR FALSE
1) A current cannot produce a magnetic field.
2) A temporary magnet is made from steel.
3) A device by which electrical energy can be converted into mechanical energy is called a Dynamo.
4) Magnetic strength of an electromagnet (I- or U-shaped) can be decreased by increasing the number of turns of insulated wire.
5) A d.c motor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
6) The magnetic field set up by a current carrying conductor acts at an angle of 180° to the direction of flow of current.
7) A transformer is a device that increases or decreases the voltage of an alternating electric current.
8) In a step up transformer, the primary coil has more number than the secondary coil.
C) CHOOSE the correct answer:
1) In an electric motor, the energy transformation is:
A) from electrical to chemical
B) from chemical to light
C) from mechanical to electrical.
D) from electrical to mechanical
2) When a current flows in a wire, it creates :
A) an electric field outside
B) a magnetic field around it.
C) both electric and magnetic fields.
D) neither electric field nor magnetic field.
3) When a straight conductor is carrying an electric current:
A) there are Circular magnetic lines of force around it.
B) there are no magnetic lines of force near it.
C) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor along the direction of current.
D) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to Conductor opposite to the direction of current.
4) Magnetic lines of force:
a) cannot intersect at all.
b) intersect within the magnet.
c) intersect only at south and north poles .
d) intersect at neutral point only
5) The magnetic lines of force, inside a current-carrying solenoid, are:
a) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
b) perpendicular to the axis and equidistant from each other.
c) circular and do not intersect each other.
d) circular at the ends but are parallel to the axis inside the solenoid.
6) A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid:
a) will become zero
b) will decrease
c) will increase
d) will remain unaffected
7) A electric generator actually acts as:
A) a source of electric charge
B) a source of heat energy
C) an electromagnet
D) a converter of energy.
8) The direction of induced current is obtained by:
A) Fleming's left hand rule
B) Maxwell's left hand rule
C) Ampere's rule
D) Fleming's right hand rule
9) Electromagnetic induction is involved in:
A) charging a body with a positive charge.
B) production of current by relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
C) rotation of the coil of an electric motor.
D) generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid.
10) For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be:
a) soft iron b) steel c) brass d) laminated Steel strips
11) Which of the following has its working based on Electromagnetic induction?
A) Ammemeter. B) Voltameter
C) Transformer. D) Galvanometer
D) QUESTIONS)
1) When can an electric charge give rise to a magnetic field ?
2) Why is a magnetic needle deflected when it is placed near a current carrying conductor?
3) Do the magnetic lines of force change their direction with the change in direction of current?
4) State the unit of magnetic field in terms of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
5) State the pattern of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor. circular
6) What is an electric motor ?
7) State the principle on which a simple d.c motor works?
8) On what factors does the magnitude of induced e.m.f. depends ?
9) What energy conservation takes place in a generator?
10) what is transformer?.
11) Give one application of electromagnetes.
12) Name the principle on which functioning of a transformer depends.
13) what is the function of a step up transformer?
14) Can a transformer work when it is connected to a d.c. source?
15) State two ways of increasing the speed of rotation of a d.c. motor.
16) State the transformation of energy which takes place in a generator when a current is drawn from it.
17) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.
18) State two ways which the e.m.f. in an a.c generator can be increased.
19) State the function of a split ring in d.c. motor.
20) State a law which determines the direction of a magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.
21) State Fleming's right hand rule.
22) Why does the field of the centre of the coil carrying current is in clockwise and anticlockwise direction ?
23) What effect will be there on a magnetic compass when it is brought near a current carrying solenoid? Justify your answer.
24) State two dissimilarities between a d.c. motor and an a.c. generator.
23) State two characteristics of the primary coil of a step up transformer when compared to the secondary coil.
24) With reference to a d.c. motor state:
a) the energy change that takes place.
b) the principle on which it operates.
25) state the main difference between a step up and a step down transformer.
Question Based on Diagrams
1) Draw a representative diagram of a d.c. motor. Label the following in your diagram:
a) the field magnet
b) the armature
c) commutators
d) wire brush
2) Draw the diagram of step up and step down Transformers.
3) Diagram shows schematically part of a step-down transformer.
Draw the complete diagram in your answer sheet.
4) Figure shows a circuit containing as coil wound on a long and thin hollow cardboard tube. Copy the diagram.
a) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.
b) Draw the magnetic lines of force inside the coil and also show their directions.
c) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.
5)i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of an a.c. generator.
ii) What is the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the coil when its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field?
6) the following diagram show two straight wires carrying current.Copy the diagram and draw the pattern of the lines of the force around them and mark the directions .
7) The diagram shows at coil connected to a centre zero galvanometer G. The galvanometer shows a deflection to the right when the N-pole of a powerful magnets is moved to the right as shown:
i) Explain why the deflection occurs in the galvanometer ?
ii) does the direction of the current in the coil appear clockwise or anticlockwise viewed from the end A?
iii) State the observation in G both the coil is moved away from N.
iv) State the observation in G when, both the coil and the magnet, are moved to the right at the same speed.
8) Draw a labelled diagram to show the various components of a step up transformer.
9) Draw a labelled of an a.c. generator.
3/9/24
Nervous system -1
A) Define:
a) Nervous system
b) Neuron
c) Nerve fibres
d) Ganglion
e) Impulse
f) Reflex action
g) Receptors
h) Effectors
i) Synapse
j) Olfactory receptor
k) Photoreceptor
l) Blind spot
m) Yellow area
n) Binocular vision
o) Myopia
p) Hypermetropia
q) Astigmatism
r) Cataract
s) Presbyopia
t) Night blindness
u) Colour blindness
v) Squint
w) Ear ossicles
x) Pons
y) Light adaptation
z) Cataract
a) Natural reflex
B) FILL IN THE BLANKS:
a) The association of two nerves is called....... (synapse/ neuron)
b) .... enables us to see in dimlight. (Cones/Rods)
c) The cones are sensitive to.... light. (dim/bright)
d) The autonomic nervous system consists of.... and.... (Ganglia/dendrites/nerves)
e) The spinal cord is the centre of... action. (reflex/auditory)
f) The central nervous system consists of.... and.... (brain/spinal cord/nerve)
g) The other name of year gland is .... gland. (lacrimal/sweat)
h) The autonomous nervous system is made up of the....and... nervous system. (sympathetic/automatic/parasympathetic)
i) The ...are concerned with maintained body balance. (auditory canals/semicircular canals)
j) The part of brain concerned with balance is ...(cerebrum/cerebellum)
k) In all there are .... pairs of cranial nerves and ...pairs of spinal nerves in humans. (12/22/31)
l) The middle ear is filled with... (air/water/gas)
m) Largest region of the brain is.... (cerebellum/cerebrum)
n) Semicircular canal, utriculus and sacculus of internal ear are concerned with.... (balance/hearing/ both balance and hearing)
o) White matter mainly consists of ....(axons/dendrites)
p) Dilation of blood vessels and slowing of heart beat is caused through .... nervous system. (sympathetic/parasympathetic)
q) The seat of memory and intelligent in human brain is ...(cerebrum/cerebellum)
r) The part of the eye responsible for change in the size of the pupil is the ....(iris/lens)
s) Region of the eye where the rods and cones are located is the ....(retina/cornea/chord)
C) Fill in the blanks with suitable words in the following statements from the list given below:
(Air, concave, Incus, Stapes, vitreous humour, iris, Malleus, neurone, spinal bulb, eye, acetycholine, sympathin)
a) The three soft bones present in the ear are____,_____ and stapes.
b) Tympanic chamber is filled with.....
c) The medulla oblongata is also known as the .....
d) The space between the retina and lens is filled with....
e) In the eye, the colour of the....varies from race to race.
f) The sympathetic nerve endings release a hormone called... and parasympathetic nerve secretes____.
g) Yellow spot and ciliary muscles are found in......
h) The ear ossicle in contact with the oval window of the inner ear is the.....
i) The type of lens used to correct myopia is .....
j) The basic unit of the human brain is the ........
D) Fill in the blanks with suitable words in the following statements:
a) Ear wax is secreted by... glands.
b) The forebrain consists of....and....
c) ..... , .... and....are the three layers of the eye.
d) The shape of the lens can be altered by the contraction and relaxation of the.....
e) The aqueous humour and vitreous humour are the solutions of... , ..... and....in water.
E) Given below is an example of a certain structure and its special functional activity.
For example--- Kidney and excretion.
On similar pattern fill in the blanks:
a) Meninges and .......
b) Cerebellum and .......
c) Myelin sheath and .......
d) Organ of Corti and .......
e) Yellow spot and......(location)....(function)
f) .....(structure).....(location) function; insulates the axon.
g) Eye : Optic nerve -- Ear : .....
h) Ureter : Carrying urine -- Eustachian tube : ......
i) Irish of the eye and ......
j) Eustachian tube and .....
F) NAME THE FOLLOWING:
1) Most important part of the nervous system.
2) Two types of peripheral nerves.
3) Structural and functional units of the nervous system.
4) Long thread-like part of the nerve cell.
5) The point on the retina through which the optic nerve comes out of the eye-ball, lacks rod and cone cells. OR
Place of no vision in the retina of the eye
6) The point in the centre of the retina where the rod and cone cells are highly concentrated.
Or
The most sensitive region of the retina
Or
Place of best vision in the retina of eye.
7) The nerve that carries the impulse from the brain to the various tissues.
8) The type of nerves which conduct the impulses from various organs to the central nervous system.
9) An enzyme present in tears.
10) The cytoplasmic process of the cell body of a neuron.
11) A collection of several neurons.
Or
A bundle of axons enclosed in a tabular sheath.
12) A neurotransmitter stored at the terminal end of the axon.
13) Central part of the membranous labyrinth which is divisible into two chambers-- utricle and the saccule.
Or
The part of ear which helps in hearing.
14) Three layers of the eye-ball.
15) Defect of vision in which distant objects are not seen clearly.
16) Defect of vision in which nearby objects are not seen clearly.
17) Watery fluids filled in the space between the cornea and the lens.
18) Three divisions of human brain.
19) The part of the brain concerned with the regulation of skeletal muscular activities and postural mechanism.
20) The bony socket in which eye is well protected.
21) The middle pigmented layer of the wall of eyeball containing a network of blood vessels.
22) The tissue that connects two cerebral hemispheres.
23) Response to a stimulus without the intervention of the will of an animal.
24) The brain and spinal cord together.
25) The structure present in the hindbrain.
26) Two types of matter present in brain and spinal cord.
27) The smallest bone in the body.
28) The structure that protects the eyeball and maintain its shape.
29) The part of the brain associated with intelligence, sight, hearing and speech.
30) The organ responsible for reflex action.
31) The sensory cells which are sensitive to shades of grey.
32) The nerves which conduct impulse from receptor organs to the central nervous system.
33) The system termed by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
34) The defect of human eye caused due to the uneven surface of the cornea.
35) The type of lens used for correcting myopia.
Or
The kind of lens required to correct near sightedness.
36) The structure that has a sensory organ called organ of Corti.
37) The organ concerned with hearing and maintenance of body equilibrium.
38) One substance that increases the rate of heat beat.
39) The outer layer of the brain.
40) Adjustment of the eye in order to obtain a clear vision of objects at different distances.
41) The part of the human brain which controls body temperature.
42) The exposed transparent part of eyeball.
43) Kind of retinal cells sensitive to dim light.
44) The fibres which collectively hold the lens in position.
45) The number of spinal nerves in man.
46) Lower part of the brain which contains reflex centre like cardiac centre, respiratory and vasomotor centre.
47) Wave of electric disturbance that sweeps over the nerve cell.
48) The kind of nerve carrying impulses from the brain to a gland or muscle.
49) A small opening in the centre of the iris.
Or
The part of the human eye which controls the amount of light entering it.
OR
The aperture through which the light rays enter the eye.
50) The receptor cells which are sensitive to different colours.
Or
The cells of retina which differentiate colours.
Or
the cells of retina that are sensitive to colours.
51) The layers protecting the brain.
Or
The membrance covering the brain and spinal cord.
Or
Protecting covering of the brain.
52) The photosensitive pigment present in the rod cells in the retina.
53) The liquid which protects the brain from shock.
Or
The fluid with which the central canal of the spinal cord is filled .
Or
The fluid that is present inside and outside the brain
Or
The fluid that provides protection and nourishment to the cells of the brain.
54) The part of the eye that gives colours to the eye.
Or
Thin circular diaphgram in front of the ciliary body.
Or
The pigmented circular area seen in the eye.
Or
constriction of the pupil of the eye.
55) The white transparent part of sclera.
Or
The clear front part of the eye.
56) The association of two nerves.
Or
The junction between the two nerve cells
Or
The point of contact between two neurons.
57) Light sensitive part of the eye.
Or
The innermost layer of the human eye.
Or
Region in the eye where the rods and cones are located.
58) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.
59) Thick, ring-shaped structure at the junction of sclera and cornea.
Or
Helps to change a local length of the eye lens.
60) Transfers impulses from inner ear to brain.
Or
Name the nerves which transmit impulses from the ear to the brain.
61) Photoreceptors found in the retina of the eye.
62) Glassy jelly-like material filled in the space between the lens and the retina.
Or
Part of eye responsible for its shape .
Or
A fluid that occupies the larger cavity of the eyeball behind the lens.
63) The tube which connects the cavity of the middle ear with the throat.
64) The structure responsible for preventing the trachea from collapsing.
65) The eye defect caused due to the shortening of the eyeball from front to back.
66) Eye defect occurring in old people whereby they are unable to see near objects.
G) STATE THE FUNCTION:
a) Neurons
b) Acetylcholine
c) Association neuron.
d) Hypothalamus
e) Lens
f) Pupil
g) Retina
h) Optic nerve
i) Rods
j) Lacrimal glands
k) Fovea centralis
l) Cornea
m) Cones
n) Tears
o) Ciliary muscles
p) Eardrum
q) Pinna
r) Auditory canals
s) Otocenia or otolith
t) Cochlea
u) Semicircular canals
v) Wax in outer ear.
w) Cerebrospinal fluid
x) Medullary sheath
y) Ear ossicle
z) Iris
a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Organ of Corti
e) Tympanum
f) Yellow spot
g) Synapse
h) Suspensory ligament
i) Spinal cord in reflex action
j) midbrain
H) STATE THE LOCATION :
a) Effector organs.
b) Node of Ranvier
c) Ganglia
d) Cerebellum
e) Iris
f) Fovea centralis
g) Ear ossicle
h) Semicircular canals
i) Organ of Corti
j) Eustachian tube
k) Meninges
I) MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
COLUMN - I
A) The blind spot.
B) The yellow spot.
C) Dendron.
D) Iris.
E) Acetylcholine.
F) Neuron.
COLUMN II
i) spinal cord
ii) nerve impulse
iii) neurotransmitter
iv) is the exact centre of the posterior portion of the retina
v) is a free of rod and cone cells
vi) gives colour to eyes
H) VERY SHORT QUESTIONS:
1) What is the nature of impulse?
2) How is the ear protected from dust and the microbes ?
3) What is meant by effector organs ?
4) What is hypermetropia and how can it be corrected ?
5) Why do you call spinal cord and brain as the central nervous system ?
6) Which part of the ear is concerned with hearing ?
7) Which part of the brain is most important and why ?
8) What is rhodopsin ?
9) What is meant by binocular vision ?
10) What are neurons ? Mention their functions.
11) Why does deficiency of vitamin A causes night blindness ?
12) What will happen if Eustachian tube is blocked ?
13) What is pons ?
14) How are the "Cross Eyes" or squint eyes produced ?
15) What is spinal cord and where is it located ?
16) Name the major division of the human nervous system.
17) Name the main components of the central nervous system.
18) State two kinds of nerve cells along with their functions.
19) What is the function of pinna in man ?
20) What is an impulse ? Explain with an example.
21) Name the coats present in the eyeball.
22) Why do older people require glasses to read and write ?
23) What type of visions are associated with rods and cones?
24) Define the reflex arc and state its components.
25) What will happen to the eyesight if optic lobes are damaged ?
26) What do you mean by light adaptation ?
27) What is cataract ?
28) What does the peripheral nervous system include ?
29) Correct the sentence if needed by changing the first or the last word :
Cochlea of the human ear is concerned with the sense of balance.
30) Name the four lobes of cerebral hemisphere.
31) Name the organ where Cochlea is located and give one function.
32) Describe the role of the following:
a) suspensory ligaments.
b) spinal cord in reflex action.
c) Iris of the eye.
33) Given below is a set of items belonging to a common category. Complete the set by filling in the category and the odd term
Semicircular canals, Malleus, Cochlea, Utriculus, Sacculus.
34) State two functions of the lacrimal glands.
35) While reading a line from a printed page you have to move your eyes from word to word. Why
36) Write the function of Eustachian tube.
37) What is reflex action ? give two examples of reflex action in our daily life.
38) What is myopia and how can it be corrected.
39) Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word/s for the 4th place.
Cones : Iodopsin :: Rods: _____.
40) What do you mean by the ear Ossicles ? Name them and state their functions.
41) What is Fovea or yellow spot ?
42) Given below is a biological statement which is incomplete and hence incorrect. Rewrite the correct form of the statement by inserting a suitable word/s at the right place. Do not delete any word already given in the statement. Underline the inserted word/s
A reflex action is a spontaneous response to stimulus.
43) Give one point of difference between the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in brackets.
a) Rod and cone cells (pigment)
b) cerebrum and spinal cord (arrangements of cytones and axons of neurons)
44) What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye ? Name the muscles of the eye responsible for the same.
Or
Briefly explain the following term: Power of accommodation of the eye.
45) Give the exact location and one function of pinna.
46) Give the appropriate term for the following:
The region of distinct vision in the eye.
47) Name the organ of structure that is responsible for protecting the eye from sweat.
I) State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, rewrite the wrong statement in its correct form by changing the first or last word.
a) Hypermetropia is a defect of the eye caused due to the eyeball being elongated.
b) Cones are the receptor cells in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.
c) The part of the ear associated with balance is the cochlea.
d) Deafness is caused due to the rupturing of the pinna.
e) Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood.
f) In the human body, the longest cells are the neurons.
J) State whether the following statements are true or false. if false, write the correct statement by changing the first word only.
a) Iron is the mineral element responsible for the clotting of blood.
b) Cones are photoreceptor cells that are sensitive to the dim light.
K) State whether the following statements is true or false. If false, write the correct statement by changing the incorrect word/s only.
Rods are responsible for vision in the dark.
L) CHOOSE THE ODD ONE:
For example: calyx, corolla, style, androecium.
b) Myopia, Hypermetropia, xerophthalmia, Astigmatism.
c) pons, cerebellum, medula oblongata, cerebrum.
d) Pleura, pericardium, Meninges, spinal cord.
e) Corpus luteum, Corpus callosum, pons, Cerebellum.
f) Coughing, sneezing, eating, blinking.
M) Given below is a set of terms arranged in logical sequence, representing a process or a function. Of these one term is incorrect identify the incorrect term and replace it with the correct term. One has been done for you as an example.
Pollen grain--> Exine--> Staminal tube ---> male gamete --> micropyle.
Incorrect term- Staminal tube,
Correct term - Pollen tube
a) Pupil --> eye lens --> vitreous humour --- Fovea---- Auditory nerve.
b) sensory nerve --- dorsal root ---> ganglion ---> sensory neuron--- motor neurone--> receptor.
N) REASON BEHIND :
a) Why do you call the spinal cord and brain as the central nervous system?
b) Why does deficiency of vitamin A causes night blindness ?
c) Why do older people require glasses to read and write ?
d) What will happen to eye sight if optic lobes are damaged ?
e) Why the mouth begins to water (salivation) at the sight of tasty food .
f) Why while reading a line from a printed page you have to move your eyes from word to word.
g) why people on reaching high altitude may suffer from unsteady visio, loss of hearing, lack of muscular coordination and even complete blackout.
h) Why do you stop smelling the perfume on your clothes while the person approaching you still perceives its smell ?
i) you don't enjoy watching a movie from very close to the screen in a cinema hall
j) why on entering a poorly lit room, one feels blinded for a short while ?
k) Injury to medulla oblongata results in death
l) The outer portion of the brain appears grey while the inner portion white
m) The brain is ordinarily free from shock.
n) Throat infections can lead to ear infections.
O) State whether the following are simple reflex, conditioned reflex, or neither of the two :
a) Sweating on hot weather.
b) Cough during swallowing.
c) knitting without looking.
d) Sneezing.
e) Blushing.
f) Contraction of Irish.
g) Salivation at sight of food.
h) Sudden application of brakes without thinking.
i) Lifting a book.
j) Contraction of pupil.
k) blinking.
l) cleaning the table.
m) playing on the keyboard.
P) ARRANGE THESE TERMS IN SEQUENCE:
a) cochlea, Tympanum, pinna, auditory canal,ear ossicle.
b) Dorsal root ganglion, receptor, Effector, ventral root ganglion, associated neuron.
c) Yellow spot, conjunctiva, pupil, cornea, lens, vitreous humour, aqueous humour.
d) Ear ossicle, oval window, Tympanum auditory canal, Cochlea.
e) Tissue fluid, oxygen, alveolus, blood tissues.
Q) Given below is a set of 5 terms. Without changing the first term, rearrange the remaining four, so as to be in logical sequence as per the direction given in bracket
a) pinna, Cochlea, Tympanum, ear ossicles, auditory canal ( route through which vibrations of sound enter the ear)
R) Short Answer type Questions
1) At the start of a race athletes react to a starter gun. This reaction involves a number of events.
a) In the boxes below, put the following events in the correct order. The first one has been done for you.
A co-ordination by brain
B detection by receptors
C stimulus
D response
E effector change
C ___ ___ ___ _____
b) Write down one difference between voluntary in the reflex actions.
c) Why are reflex actions so important to living beings ?
2) Luke puts his hand on a nail. He quickly moves his hand and shouts in pain.
a) What type of nervous system is involved when Luke moves his hand ?
b) Complete the following sentences with the help of words given below :
(brain, electrical, effector, motor, physical, receptor, sensory, spinal cord)
i) when Luke puts his hand on a nail, pressure is put on a____.
ii) nerve impulses then travel along a _____ neurone.
iii) these impulses are____.
iv) these impulses will go first to the____.
S) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN:
a) voluntary/involuntary reflex action.
b) myopia/Hypermetropia
c) rods/cones
d) blind spot/yellow spot
e) white/ grey matter
f) Auditory/optic nerve
g) medulla oblongata/Cerebellum
h) Aqueous /vitreous humour
i) spinal/ cranial nerves
j) Cerebrum/Cerebellum
k) afferent/ efferent neurons
l) choroid/sclerotic layer
m) Dynamic/ static balance.
T) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION:
1) The dorsal root ganglion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies of:
A) motor neurones
B) sensory neurones.
C) intermediate neurons
D) none of these
2) The Adjustment of the eye in a normal person to view near and distinct objects.
A) accommodation
B) myopia
C) refraction
D) astigmatism
3) The condition in which light rays from a distant object are brought into focus in front of the retina:
A) astigmatism
B) myopia
C) accommodation
D) refraction
4) Which part of the ear passes sound waves from the outer to the inner ear?
A) Eustachian tube
B) eardrum
C) oval window
D) pinna
5) Which one of these receptors in man is stimulated by sound waves?
A) utriculus
B) organ of corti
C) semicircular canals
D) Sacculus
6) myopia(short sightedeness) is a defect in human eyes in which image formed.
A) in front of retina and can be corrected by using a concave lens.
B) in front of retina and can be corrected by using a convex lens.
C) behind retina and can be corrected by using a concave lens.
D) behind retina and can be corrected by using a convex lens.
7) to view distant objects the lens for eye becomes:
A) more convecs
B) less convex
C) more concave
D) less concave
8) function of iris is to:
A) move the lens.
B) alter the diameter of pupil
C) close the eyelid
D) secret aqueous humour
9) blind spot in an eye is located
A) in a fovea centralis.
B) in middle of the lens.
C) where optic nerve leaves the retina.
D) in centre of the pupil.
10) The parts of the human ear concerned with hearing.
A) cochlea, ear ossicle and tympanum
B) semicircular canals, utriculus and circuits
C) eustachian tube, tympanum and utriculus.
D) perilymph, ear ossicle and semicircular canals
11) mammals, the corpus callosum connects:
A) the two optic lobes.
B) the two cerebral hemispheres
C) the cerebrum to the cerebellum
D) the pins to the medulla oblongota.
12) cerebellum is the part of the brain which is responsible for:
A) interpreting sensations
B) conducting reflexes in the body
C) maintaining posture and equilibrium
D) controlling thinking, memory and reasoning.
13) Which of the following is not involved the knee-jerk reflex?
A) spinal cord
B) motor neurone
C) connecting neuron
D) sensory neuron
14) Which of the following is not an not effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) increased heart rate
B) reduction of blood supply to the skin
C) increased peristalsis.
D) dilation of the pupil
Questions Based on Diagrams
1) Figure represents a point at a which one neurone meets another.
a) What is this type of function called ?
b) What is contained in the vesicles ?
c) Explain how a nerve impulse in A is transmitted to neurone B.
2) The following diagram represents a certain difect of vision of the human eye.
b) Describe briefly the condition in the eye responsible for the defect.
c) Redraw the figure by adding a suitable lens correcting the defect. Label the parts through which the light rays pass.
d) What special advantages do human beings derive in having both eyes facing forward?
3) Observe the diagram given below:
a) Label the part 1 to 8.
b) What are the functions of parts labelled 1, 3 and 5 ?
c) What is the function of the neuron ?
d) What is the name given to the tissue where the cell bodies of the neurons are located ?
4) The following diagram represents a section of a mammalian eye:
a) Name the part 1 to 12.
b) What structures in the eye are mainly responsible for:
i) the alteration of the shape of the lens ?
ii) the constriction of the pupil in bright light ?
iii) the best perception of image ?
iv) the perception of light
v) the transmission of nerve impulse from eye to the brain?
c) Name any two common difects of vision in man and their causes.
5) The following diagram representsthe parts of the human ear.
a) Name the parts level 1 to 8.
b) What is function of the parts marked 2 and 7 ?
c) Why is it harmful to use a pin or any sharp object to remove the wax from the ear ?
6) Draw a diagram of the human eye as seen in a vertical section and label the part which suits the following function/s descriptions.
a) the layer which prevents reflection of light.
b) the structure that alters the focal length of the lens.
c) the region of distinct vision .
d) the part which transmits the impulse to the brain.
e) The outermost transparent layer in front of the eye lens.
f) the fluid present in the interior part of the eye in front of the eye lens.
7) The diagram given below depicts the cross section of the spinal cord. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
a) name the process that is being depicted.
b) name the parts labelled 2, 5 and 6.
c) Name the cells in contact with the part labelled 1.
d) What is the function of the parts labelled 3,4 and 7 ? What is the technical term given to the pathway represented by 3,4 and 7 ?
e) How does the arrangement of cells in the spinal cord differ from that in the brain?
8) The following diagram shows a human brain. Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate different parts of the surface of the brain and these are as follows:
1. Frontal lobe of Cerebrum
2. Temporal lobe of Cerebrum
3. Occipital lobe of Cerebrum
4. Cerebellum
5. Medulla oblongota.
Study the diagram and answer the following questions:
a) What handicaps would result from:
i) damage to part numbered 3 ?
ii) damage to part numbered 4 ?
b) Mention one main function of each of the parts numbered 1,2 and 5.
9) Given below is the diagram of human ear. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
a) What role does ear drum play in hearing?
b) What common term is given to the parts labelled A, B and E ?
c) Would there be any difference if these three parts mentioned in (b) above were replaced by a big one ? Why ?
d) Give the biological term for the parts labelled C and D.
e) Name the fluid which fills the parts mentioned in (d) above.
f) State the function of the ear.
10) The diagram given below represents a defect of vision of the human eye:
a) Name the defect.
b) What is the effect of this defect on man ?
c) Mention two causes for this defect.
d) How can this defect be rectified?
e) Draw a neat labelled diagram to show how this defect can be rectified.
f) What is the nature of the image that falls on the retina of a normal eye?
11) The following diagram refers to the ear of a mammal:
a) Label the parts 1 to 10 to which the guidelines point.
Which structure:
i) Converts sound waves into mechanical vibrations?
ii) converts vibrations into nerve impulses?
iii) responde to change in position?
iv) transmits impulses to the brain?
v) equalizes atmospheric pressure and pressure in the ear ?
12) The diagram given below the internal structure of the spinal cord, depicting a simple reflex. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
a) Name the parts numbered 1 to 5.
b) Using the letters of the alphabet shown in the figure, indicate the direction in which an impulse enters and leaves the spinal cord.
c) What is the term given to the point of contact between two nerve cells ?
d) What is meant by simple reflex ? Give two examples of simple reflexs, and name the stimuli too.
e) How does the arrangement of nerv cells in the spinal cord differ from that in the brain ?
13) The following diagram represents the human brain as seen in an external view. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.
b) Mention the difference in the arrangement of the nerve cells in the parts marked 1 and 4.
c) What are the main functions of the parts marked 3 and 4 ?
d) Name the sheet of nerve fibre that connect the two halves of the part labelled 1
14) Given below is the diagram of a part of the human ear. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
a) Give the biological term of malleus, incus, and stapes.
b) Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram.
c) State the functions of the parts labelled A and B.
d) Name the audio receptor region present in the part labelled A.
15) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow :
a) Name the defect on in the diagram.
b) Give two possible reasons for this defect of the eye in human beings.
c) Name the parts labelled 1 to 4.
d) Name the type of lens used to correct this eye defect.
e) Draw a labelled diagram to show how the above mentioned defect is rectified using the lens named above.
16) Draw a labelled diagram of the inner ear.
Name the part of the inner ear that is responsible for static balance in human beings.
17) a) Draw a labelled diagram of a Myelinated neuron.
b) Explain the difference between a sensory nerve and a motor nerve.
18) The diagram given below is the external view of the human brain. Study the same and answer the questions that follow: 
a) Name the parts level 1, 2 and 3
b) State the main functions of the part labelled 1 and 2.
c) How are the brain cells arranged in the parts labelled 1 ?
d) What is the structural and functional unit of The nervous system ?
e) Name the fluid that surrounds the brain. State its function.
19) Given below is a diagram of the human ear. Study the same and answer the questions that follow: 
a) Give the biological term for the part labelled A and state its function.
b) Name the part labelled B and state its function.
c) Name the part labelled C and state its function.
d) Give the function of ear wax .
20) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a defect of the human eye.
a) identify the defect.
b) Mention two reasons for the above defect .
c) state how the defect can be rectified.
d) Name the part of the eye responsible for maintaining the shape of the eyeball.
3/9/24
CALORIMETRY - 03
1) What is heat ?
2) How do you define one calorie ?
3) What is relation between calorie and joule?
4) How would you define temperature ?
5) State the three factors upon which amount of heat absorbed/evolved by a body depends.
6) How do you define specific heat capacity of a body ?
7) Discuss the factor/s upon which the specific heat capacity depends.
8) What are the units of specific heat capacity ?
9) What is the relation between the unit of specific capacity in cal g⁻¹C⁻¹ and Jg⁻¹C⁻¹.
10) A rod of certain specific capacity is broken in to two halves . What is the specific heat capacity of each half ?
11) A body has specific heat capacity 'A'. What will be the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of half a gram of body through eight degree centrigrade ?
12) How do you define water equivalent of a body ?
13) What are units of water equivalent to SI ?
14) Specific heat capacity of iron 460 J kg⁻¹° C⁻¹. What will be its value in terms of
a) J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹
b) cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ ?
15) Specific heat capacity of kerosene oil is 0.52 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹. What will be its value in terms of
a) J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹
b) J Kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ ?
16) State the principle of heat.
17) What is a calorimeter ?
18) What is calorimetry ?
19) Why do we use a calorimetre made up of copper ?
20) Why do you place the calorimetre in a box packed with insulating material ?
21) Why, do we use a stirrer in experiments of calorimetry?
22) Would you prefer a calorimetre made up of a material having high specific heat capacity or low specific heat capacity ?
23) Calculate the thermal capacity of a steel ball of mass 100g having specific heat capacity 460 J Kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
24) A body requires 100 cal of heat to raise its temperature through the certain range. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of another body through same range if the mass of second body is half and specific heat four times than that of first ?
25) A body has water equivalent of 10 g.
a) What is its thermal capacity ?
b) What is the amount of heat, in cal, required to raise its temperature through 5°C ?
26) Calculate the amount of heat, in cal 0, required to raise the temperature of 100g of iron from 40° to 60°C (Specific heat capacity of iron = 460 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹).
27) Calculate the amount of heat, in joule required to raise the temperature of 50 gram of mercury from 20°C to 30°C (Specific heat capacity Mercury =0.033 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹).
28) An electric immersion rod raises the temperature of 20 kg of water from 25° to 60°C in half an hour. Calculate the power of the rod. Specific heat capacity for water is 4185 J Kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
29) 20 gram of water and 40 gram of lead are initially in at room temperature. Each of the two liquids are supplied with 250 joule of heat. Which of them will be hotter and by how many degree of centigrade ? Specific heat capacities of water and lead are respectively, 4185 J Kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and 134 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
30) A liquid of specific heat 0.6 at 40°C is mixed with another liquid of specific heat 0.2 at 10°C. After mixing , the temperature of the mixture becomes 20°C. In what proportion, by weight, are the two liquids mixed?
31) The densities of two substances are in the ratio 4:3 and their specific heat capacities are 0.16 and 0.12 respectively. Compare their thermal capacity per unit volume.
32) Fill in the blanks:
a) Heat is measured in_____
b) 5 cal = _____ joule
c) Thermal capacity and water equivalent of a body are____ equal to each other.
d) Calorimetry is the branch of heat which deals with the ____of heat.
e) Thermal capacity of a body is equal to the product of ____and ____.
f) A body having____ specific capacity of cools faster.
g) A body which gets heated faster will cool_____.
33) State whether the following statement are true or false:
a) Heat absorved by a body is measured in degree centigrade.
b) unit of heat is joule.
c) Specific heat capacity of a body does not depend upon its mass.
d) Heat capacitive of a body depends upon its mass.
e) Water equivalent of a body is independent of its mass.
f) Calorimetry is based upon the principle that rise of temperature of one body is equal to the fall of temperature of the other body.
34) Name three States of matter.
35) Fill in the blanks:
S.No Property States of matter
1. Fixed volume, no fixed shape
2. Fixed shape, fixed volume
3. No fixed shape, no fixed volume
36) what is fusion
37) What is Vaporization
38) What is sublimation
39) Fill in the blanks:
S,N Process Name of Process
1. Conversion of water into steam
2. Conversion of ice in to water
3. Conversion of camphor in to vapors
4. Conversion of steam into water
5. Conversion of water into ice
40) What is meant by melting point ?
41) What type of substance has a fixed melting point ?
42) What type of substance have a melting range ?
43) What is the effect of increase of pressure on melting point of a substance ?
a) Substance which expands on melting
b) Substance which contracts on melting.
44) What is regelation ?
*) Figure shows an ice block placed on supports. A thin wire, carrying two weights on its two ends, is put over it. It is observed that the wire cuts through the block and goes down while the block remains intact. Explain.
45) Explain the following:
a) Water remains cold in earthen pitcher.
b) We feel cold if we keep our body wet after taking bath.
c) Cloth gets dried up sooner in summer than in winter.
d) To dry a wet cloth quickly we allow it to flutter in air.
e) In hilly area, during winter seasons, sometimes water pipes get burst open in the night.
f) It takes a lesser time to cook vegetables in a pressure cooker.
46) What is latent heat ?
47) Why is latent heat so named ?
48) What is specific latent heat ?
49) What is specific latent heat of fusion ?
50) What is the value of specific latent heat of fusion of ice ?
a) in terms of cal/g.
b) in terms of k cal/kg
c) in terms of j/kg
51) What is specific latent heat of vaporization ?
52) What is the value of specific latent heat of vaporization of steam ?
a) in terms of cal/g.
b) in terms of kcal/g
c) in terms of j/kg
53) if a tray of water is placed in the freezing compartment of a refrigerator, it takes only 15 minutes to cool from 30°C to 1°C. However it takes more than an hour before the water is completely turned to ice. Why is it so?
54) a mixture of water at room temperature and ice 0°C is placed in a refrigerator whose temperature is 0°C. What will happen as to the quantity of water and ice ?
55) Two beakers A and B contains equal amount of water at 15°C. 5 gram of ice, at 0°C, is added to A while 5 gram of water, at 0° C, is added to B. Which of the two beakers records a lower temperature ? Explain the reason.
56) Explain the following:
a) Addition of salt to ice lowers the temperature of mixture.
b) addition of ice produces a lower temperature than that produced by addition of an equal amount of water at 0°C.
c) fire can be easily extinguished by sprying boiling water rather than ice cold water on a burning body.
d) Steam caused more severe burns than boiling water at 100°C.
57) Which contains more heat
a) 1 kg of ice at 0°C and 1 kg of water at 100°C.
b) 1 kg of water at 100°C and 1 kg of steam at 100°C.
58) A substance is heated and its temperature is plotted against time.
a) Name the regions when the substance absorbs latent heat and name them.
b) What is the melting point of the substance ?
c) What is the boiling point of the substance ?
d) Name the regions in which the substance exists in the form of solid, liquid and gas.
59) Air is blown through a beaker containing ether,
causing ether to operate and shown in figure. it is observed that water contained in between the beaker and a board freezes . Why is it so.
60) Calculate the minimum amount of heat required to convert 5g of ice at -10°C into water. Specific heat capacity of ice= 0.5 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 80 cal g⁻¹.
61) Calculate the minimum amount of heat required to be derived out of 50 gram of water at 15°C in order to freeze it. Specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 80 cal g⁻¹.
62) How much heat, in calorie, is required to melt 5 gram of ice at 0°C. Specific latent heat of fusion of Ice L= 336 Jg⁻¹, 1 cal = 4.185J.
63) What is the basic principle of 'green house effect'?
64) Give an example for each of the following :
a) natural greenhouse
b) artificial greenhouse
65) What do you mean by 'global warming'?
66) Mention three reasons for global warming.
67) Fill in the blanks:
a) Specific latent heat of fusion of Ice is______J kg⁻¹.
b) Specific late heat of vaporization of steam is____ J kg⁻¹.
c) Evaporation results in_____ of temperature of liquid.
d) Increase of pressure result in____ in melting point of ice.
e) increase of pressure results in______in boiling point of water.
68) State whether the following statements are true or false:
a) liquids have fixed shape and no fixed volume.
b) melting point of ice decreases due to an increase of pressure .
c) boiling point of water increases due to an increase pressure.
d) rate of evaporation is independent of surface area of the liquid.
e) there is no solid which contracts on melting.
f) there is an increase in volume as water freezes.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1) How many heat is required to change 2g of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C ? Take Specific heat capacity of water= 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C, specific latent heat of ice=336 J g⁻¹ and specific heat of steam= 2268 Jg⁻¹. 6048
2) Calculate the mass of steam at 100°C required to raise the temperature of 200g of water from 60°C to 100°C. Take Specific latent heat of steam= 2268 J g⁻¹, specific heat capacity of water =4.2J g⁻¹ °C. 14.8 g
3) 400 g mercury of specific heat capacity 0.14 J g⁻¹ °C is heated by 200 W heater for 1 min and 40 ps. If initially mercury is at 0°C, calculate its final temperature. 357.1°C
4) Calculate the heat energy required to change 10g of ice at. -20°C to water at 40°C. Given that the specific heat capacity of ice = 2.1 J g⁻¹ °C, specific latent heat of ice=336 J g⁻¹. 5460 J
5) A solid of mass 200g at 100°C is dropped into 80g of water at 10°C. If the final temperature is 40°C, calculate the specific heat capacity of the solid. 0.84J g⁻¹ °C
6) 15g of ice at 0°C is added to 60g of water at 40°C. Calculate the final temperature of the mixture. Gives that the specific latent heat of ice=336 J g⁻¹ and specific heat of water= 4.2 Jg⁻¹°C. 16°C
7) 0.50kg of lead at 327°C is cooled to 27°C, when it gives off 22500 calories of energy. Calculate the specific heat capacity of lead in
a) calories. 150 cal kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹
b) joule 630 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹
8) 8000 J of heat is given to 200g of copper at 0°C. What is the final temperature, if the specific heat capacity of copper = 9.4 J g° C⁻¹ ? 120°C
9) A liquid of mass 100g and at 120°C is poured in water at 20°C, when the final temperature recorded is 40°C. If the specific heat capacity of the liquid is 0.8 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹, calculate the initial mass of water. 76.19g
10) 200g of a solid at 100°C id dropped into a copper calorimetre of mass 100g containing water weighing 150g at 40°C. The final temperature reached is 50°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of solid. Given that the specific heat capacity of copper =0.4 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and of water= 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 0.67 Jg⁻¹°C
11) 50g of a hot solid of specific heat capacity 0.25J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and at 100°C is placed in 80g of cold water, when the temperature of cold water risees by 3°C. Find the initial temperature of cold water. 16.36°C
12) A drill of power 400W makes a hole in a lead cube of specific heat capacity 0.13Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ in 80s. . If the temperature of lead rises from 27°C to 327°C. Calculate the mass of lead cube. 820.5g
13) A colling machine converts 1.5 kg of water at 15°C into ice at -4°C in 720 seconds. How much heat is being extracted per second? Given that the Specific heat capacity of water= 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹, specific latent heat of ice=336 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of ice is 2.1 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 848.75 Js⁻¹
14) A vessel of mass 80g (specific heat capacity 0.8 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ contains 250g of water at 35°C. Find the amount of ice at 0°C, which must be added to it, so that the final temperature is 5°C. Take the specific latent heat of ice= 340 Jg⁻¹ . 92.57g
15) A breaker contains 580g of ice the beaker is passed steam till the ice left is 500g. The water collected is 90g. If the specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g⁻¹, find the specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam. 540 cal g⁻¹
16) Calculate the time taken by a heater supplying heat at the rate of 500 W(Js⁻¹) to raise the temperature of 20kg of a liquid from 20°C to 50°C. Specific heat capacity of liquid is 960 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 19min 12s
°C⁻¹
17) 40g of ice at -10°C is heated by a heater of power 250W, such that water formed from it, attains the temperature of boiling point. For how long the beaker is switched on? Take the specific heat capacity of ice= 2 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and the specific latent heat of ice= 340Jg⁻¹. 124.8s
18) A piece of brass of mass 200g and at 100°C, is placed in 400g of turpentine oil, contained in a copper calorimetre of mass 50g at 15°C. The final temperature recorded is 23°C. Find the specific heat capacity of turpentine oil. Take Specific heat capacity for brass= 370 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ and specific heat capacity of copper= 390 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. 1731.88 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
19) you are required to make a water bath of 50 kg at 45°C, mixing hot water at 90°C, with cold water at 20°C. Find the amount of hot water required. 17.86 kg
20) A copper vessel contains 200g of water 24°C. When 112g of water at 42°C is added to it, the resultant temperature of water is 30°C. Find thermal capacity of calorimetre. 100.8 J °C⁻¹
21) An immersion heater is placed in crushed ice at -40°C, contained in a prespex jar, such that water at 50°C is formed. If the power of heater is 200 W and it is switched on for 3 min and 20s, find the initial mass of ice. Take the specific heat capacity of ice= 2.1 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and the latent heat of ice= 336 Jg⁻¹. 63.49 g
22) A liquid X of specific heat capacity 1050 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ at 90°C is mixed with liquid Y of specific heat capacity 2362.5 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ and at 20°C, when the final temperature recorded is 50°C. Find what proportion the weights of liquids are mixed. 27:16
23) A metal drill of power output 500W drills a hole in a lead cube of mass 0.25 kg in 6.5s. The specific heat capacity of lead is 130 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. Find
a) the heat generated by the metal drill in one second. 500 J
b) the heat generated by the metal drill in 6.5 seconds. 3250J
c) the heat absorbed by the cube in terms of t, if t°C is the rise in temperature of the lead cube. 32.5 t J
d) the value of t. 100°C
Assume that all the heat generated by the drill is absorbed by the cube.
24) Calculate the mass of steam, which should be passed through 200g of alcohol (specific heat capacity 1.2 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹), contained in a vessel of 40g (specific heat capacity 0.5 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹) at -20°C, such that the final temperature is 30°C. Take Specific latent heat of steam= 2260 Jg⁻¹. 5.09 g
25) An immersion heater of 396 W, changes 60g of ice at -12°C into water at 40°C. If the specific heat capacity of ice is 2 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹, calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of ice, when the heater is switched on for 1 min and 20s. 336 Jg⁻¹
26) Calculate the mass of steam which should be passed through 1 kg of water at 0°C, contained in a vessel of mass 1000g (specific heat capacity 0.15 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹) such that final temperature is 20°C. Take the specific latent heat of steam 540 cal g⁻¹ and the specific heat of water 1 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 37.09 g
27) A refrigerator converts 100g of water at 20°C to ice at -10°C in 73.5 min. Find the average rate of heat extraction in watt. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and specific latent heat of ice is 336 Jg⁻¹. The specific heat capacity of ice is Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 10 watt
28) 32160 J of heat energy changes 10g of ice at -40°C into superheated steam at +160°C. If the specific heat capacity of ice and steam is 2 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and the specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam is 2260 Jg⁻¹, find the specific latent heat of fusion of ice. 336 Jg⁻¹
29) What mass of a solid of specific heat capacity 0.75 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ will have capacity 93.75 J°C⁻¹ ? 125g
30) 2 kg of ice melts when a jet of steam at 100°C is passed through a hole drilled in a block of ice. What mass of steam was used? Given: specific heat capacity of water= 4200 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹, specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 336 x 10³ Jkg⁻¹ and specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam= 2.268 x 10³ J kg⁻¹. 0.2909 kg
31) A hot solid of mass 60g at 100°C is placed in 100g of water at 18°C. The final steady temperature recorded is 20°C. Find the specific heat capacity of the solid. 0.175 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
32) Find the mass of steam at 100°C that must be passed into 8.4 kg of water at 30°C to raise the temperature of water to 80°C. Take the specific heat capacity of water= 4.2 Jg⁻¹ °C and the specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam= 2268 J g⁻¹. 750g
33) In a laboratory experiment to measure specific heat capacity of copper, 0.02 kg of water at 70°C was poured into a copper calorimetre with a stirrer of mass 0.16 kg, initially at 15°C. After stirring, the final temperature reached to 45°C. Specific heat capacity of water is taken as 4200 Jg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
a) water is the quantity of heat released per kg of water per 1°C fall in temperature ? 4200 J
b) find the heat energy released by water in the experiment, in cooling from 70°C to 45°C. 2100J
c) Assuming that the heat released by water is entirely used to raise the temperature of the calorimetre from 15°C to 45°C, find the specific heat capacity of copper. 437.5 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹
34) A vessel of negligible heat capacity contains 40g of ice in it at 0°C. 8g of steam at 100°C is passed into the ice to melt it. Find the final temperature of the constants of the vessel. Take Specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam= 2268 J g⁻¹, specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 336 J g⁻¹ and specific heat capacity of water= 4.2 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 40°C
35) In a laboratory experiment for finding specific latent heat of ice, 100g of water at 30°C was taken in a calorimetre made of copper and of mass 10g. When 10g of ice at 0°C was added to the mixture and kept within the liquid till the ice melted completely, the final temperature of the mixture was found to be 20°C.
a) What is the total quantity of water in the calorimetre at 20°C ? 110g
b) Specific heat capacities of water and copper being 4.2 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and 0.4 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ respectively, what quantity of heat would each release in cooling down to 20°C from the initial stage? 4240 J
c) Write an expression for the heat gained by ice on melting. 100 L J
d) Find the value of the latent heat of fusion of ice from the data discussed above. 340 J g⁻¹
36) 10125 J of heat energy boils off 4.5 g of water at 100°C to steam at 100°C. Find the specific latent heat of steam. 2250 J g⁻¹
37) i)A thermos flask of negligible heat capacity contains 100g ice and 30g of water. Find
a) the mass of steam at 100°C needed to condenses in the flask so that as to just melt the ice. 12.54 g
b) the amount of water in the flask after condensation (specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam= 2260 J g⁻¹
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 336 J g⁻¹
Specific heat capacity of water= 4.2 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 142.54 g
ii) Is it possible to condense the water formed, back to ice by adding ice at 0°C ? Explain, giving a suitable reason to justify your answer. No change of heat as the system is at 0°C
38) Calculate the heat energy that will be released when 5.0 kg of steam at 100°C condenses to form water at 100°C. Express your answer in SI unit. (Specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam is 2268 kJ kg⁻¹. 11.34 x 10⁶ J
39) Water falls from a height of 50m. Calculate the rise in the temperature of water when it strikes the bottom. 0.12°C
40) If there is no heat loss to the surroundings , the heat released by the condensation of m₁g of steam at 100°C into water at 100°C can be used to convert m₂ g of ice at 0°C into water at 0°C. Find
a) the heat lost by steam in terms of m₁. m₁ x 2268 J
b) the heat gained by ice in terms of m₂. m₂ x 336 J
c) Form a heat equation and find the ratio of m₂ : m₁ from it. (Specific latent heat of Vaporization of steam=2268 kJ kg⁻¹ , specific latent heat of fusion of ice= 336 kJ kg⁻¹ and specific heat capacity of water= 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹. 27:4
.
1/9/24
Paper-2 (Calorimetry)
1) Heat gained or absorbs is independent of ____
a) mass b) time c) temperature d) none
2) The SI unit of heat capacity is ____
a) joule b) joule per kg c) joule per Kelvin d) erg per gm
3) Heat capacity is ___
a) mass x specific heat
b) mass x temperature
c) mass x specific heat
d) mass x specific heat
4) SI unit of specific heat capacity is ____
a)!calorie per kg
b) erg per dollar
c) joule per kg per Kelvin
d) joule per kg per Celsius
5) Specific capacity is ____mass
a) inversely proportional
b) dependent on c) equal d) independent of
6) _____has the highest specific capacity.
a) steam b) ice c) sea water d) water
7) The value of specific heat capacity of water is:
a) 4.2 J g⁻¹C⁻¹
b) 4200 J kg⁻¹K⁻¹
c) 4020 J kg⁻¹C⁻¹
d) both (a) and (b)
8) Water is used in car radiator because _____
a) it is a good repellent
b) it is a good heat radiator
c) it is good hear absorber
d) it is cheap
9) Principle of mixtures. or calorimetry is applicable when____
a) two bodies at different temperatures are in thermal conduct
b) two bodies are same temperature are in physical contact
c) two bodies are different temperature are in physical contact
d) All the above
10) Latent heat is____
a) Heat radiated
b) heat conducted
c) heat absorbed
d) hidden form of energy stored inside a substance responsible for phase change.
11) When water gets converted into steam the temperature is called ____
a) steaming point
b) boiling point
c) Vaporization point
d) distillation point
12) When steam gets converted to water the process is called____
a) condensations
b) liquification
c) Solidification
d) melting
13) Water converting into ice is due to_____
a) freezr b) solidification c) sublimation d) evaporation
14) The process in which solid gets converted into gas without going through the intermediate liquid phase is called ____
a) condensation b) evaporation c) Solidification d) sublimation
15) During change of physical state temperature:
a) changes v) varies c) remains constant d) becomes zero
16) Latent heat of vaporization of steam takes place at its____
a) boiling point
b) melting point
c) liquification point
d) freezing point
17) Latent heat of the fusion of ice is _____
a) 336 J b) 336 J kg⁻¹ c) 336 x 10³ J kg⁻¹ d) 336 x 10³ J K⁻¹
18) On releases of external pressure, ice recombines to its solid state. This process is called as ____
a) reunion b) regelation c) freezing d) anti melting
19) Boiling point of a liquid ____ with addition of impurities.
a) increases b) remains constant c) changes d) decreases
20) melting point of Ice____on applying pressure.
a) decreases b) increases c) remains same d) none
21) Freezing mixture is a mixture of ____and ____
a) ice, salt
b) salt ,water
c) distilled water, salt
d) liquid nitrogen and oxygen
22) The ratio of adding salt to ice in the formation of freezing mixture is ____
a) 1:3 b) 3:1 c) 1:4 d) 4:1
23) Freezing curve has a ____ slope
a) positive b) negative c) uniform d) no slope
24) Heating curve has a ____ slope.
a) positive b) negative c) constant d) none of these
25) In case of water, boiling takes____ time than freezing.
a) less b) more c) equal d) none of these
26) The SI unit of thermal capacity is:
a) J° C⁻¹ b) J K⁻¹ c) cal° C⁻¹ d) cal K⁻¹
27) The principal of calorimetre is based on:
a) law of conservation of mass
b) law of conservation of energy
c) law of conservation of temperature d) none
28) If temperature rises by 10°C, what is its equivalent rise in the Kelvin scale?
a) 273K b) 283 K c) 10K d) 0K
29) The melting point of a substance is numerically equal to its:
a) boiling point b) freezing point c) Condensation point d) none
30) Which of the following statements is true about line segment 3 in the graph given below ?
a) a solid is melting with constant temperature
b) a solid is melting with rise in temperature
c) a liquid is heating with rise in temperature
d) a liquid is boiling with constant temperature
31) Which of these carries in maximum amount of heat energy ?
a) 1g of ice at 0°C
b) 1 gram of water at 0°C
c) 1 gram of water at 100°C
d) 1g of steam at 100°C
32) The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is:
a) 2260 J g⁻¹
b) 80 J g⁻¹
c) 336 J g⁻¹
d) 4200 J g⁻¹
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1) Some heat is provided to a body to raise its temperature by 25°C. What will be the corresponding rise in temperature of the body as shown on the Kelvin scale ?
2) Name the three factors that determine the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a body.
3) a certain amount of heat Q will warm 1 g of material X by 3°C and 1 g of material Y by 4°C. Which material has a higher specific heat capacity ?
4) Name the three States of matter.
5) State the energy change that takes place when a substance undergoes a change in phase
a) without increase in temperature.
b) with increase in temperature.
6) Name the two factors that affect the melting and boiling point of a substance.
7) Which among the two carries more heat energy: 50 gram of ice at 0°C or 50 gram of water at 0°C.
8) What happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules as ice melts at 0°C ?
9) What happens to the heat supply to a substance when the heat supplied causes no changes in the temperature of the substance ?
10) When 1 gram of ice at 0°C melts to form 1g of water at 0°C, is the latent heat absorbed or released by ice ?
11) Which of these two will require more heat energy to rise the temperature of 50C; 10 g of ice at 0°C or 10g of water at 0°C ?
30/8/24
CALORIMETRY
A) Complete the following sentences using the words from the box:
(decrease, decreases, increases, increases, increases, 4.2, 4200, J°C⁻¹, 2268 Jg⁻¹, J kg⁻¹, 336J g⁻¹, absorption, effect of pressure on boiling point
1) The unit of heat capacity is______ .
2) Specified heat capacity of water is_____ J kg⁻¹°C⁻¹.
3) Specific latent heat of ice is_____ and that of steam is _____ .
4) The SI unit of specific latent heat is______ .
5) 1 calorie is equal to_____ joules.
6) The increase in pressure on the surface of a liquid_____the boiling point of the liquid.
7) When ice melts, there is a/ an_____in its volume.
8) The increase in pressure_____ the boiling point of water.
9) A pressure cooker is based on the principle of_____ .
10) The increase in pressure over ice_____ its melting point, and a decrease in pressure ____ its melting point.
11) During fusion and boiling, the temperature is not raised even by____ of heat.
B) State whether True or False. Also correct the false statements :
1) The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of heat required to raise its temperature by 1°C.
2) The SI unit of heat capacity is J kg⁻¹°C⁻¹.
3) The specific heat capacity of ice is greater than that of water.
4) Specific heat capacity has no units in SI system.
5) Latent heat of ice is less than that of water.
6) Water is used in hot-water bottles due to its high specific heat capacity.
7) The amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a substance from liquid to vapour state without change of temperature is called the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance.
8) The boiling point of a liquid decreases by the addition of impurities to it.
9) When steam changes into water, heat is observed.
C) Very Short Answer Type Questions:
1) Name the SI unit of heat.
2) Define the term 'kilocalorie'.
3) State the relationship of kilocalorie with joule.
4) What name is given to the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C ?
5) State the SI unit of specific heat capacity.
6) What do you understand by the following statement?
" Specific heat capacity of alcohol is 2180 J kg⁻¹K⁻¹."
7) State the value of specific heat capacity of water in calories.
8) Name a substance having the highest specific heat capacity.
9) State the value of specific heat capacity of water in SI units.
10) Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is:
a) J kg⁻¹°C⁻¹
b) J kg⁻¹
11) Thermal capacity of a copper calorimetre is 175 J K⁻¹. What does it mean ?
12) Which of the two has a higher specific heat: iron or water ?
13) Give the difference between the thermal capacity and specific heat of a body.
14) State the factors on which the heat absorbed by a body depends.
15) Give the useful name for the following:
" Heat required to change the state of a substance without changing it temperature."
16) "Specific latent heat of fusion of lead is 27 x 10³ J kg⁻¹." What do you understand by the statement ?
17) Give the SI unit of specific latent heat of fusion.
18) Which contains more heat: 1 gram ice at 0°C or 1 g water at 0°C ?
19) Why do we feel cold after bath ?
20) Why does tea become cooler when sugar is added to it ?
21) Why it becomes bitterly cold, as soon as thaw starts in cold countries ?
22) Is there any change in temperature during the change of state ?
23) Why there is a year long supply of water in snow fed rivers ?
24) How is the boiling point of water affected when salt is added to it ?
25) Does a substance absorb or liberate any heat during the change of state ?
26) Name one substance that contracts and melting and the expands on solidification.
27) it takes much longer to boil off the quantity of water than it does to bring it to boiling point. Why?
28) When some common salt is added to ice, it is found that temperature of the mixture drops below 0°C. Explain .
29) Why are press letters are castard and not stamped ?
30) Will the boiling point of water at Delhi be same, less or greater than that of Shimla ?
31) It is difficult to cook vegetables on hills and mountains, state the reason.
32) Which material is a calorimetre commonly made of ?
33) Define the term 'specific latent heat of fusion of ice'.
34) What is the effect of increase in pressure on the melting point of Ice and boiling point of water ?
35) At what approximate temperature will water boil in a pressure cooker ? Give a reason in support your answer.
36) Define specific heat capacity of a substance.
37) Give one example each where high specification heat capacity of water is used:
a) in cooling
b) as heat reservoir
38) Explain why steam pipes warm a building more effectively than hot water pipes in cold countries.
39) Does land cool at a slower or faster rate than water ? Give one reason for the answer.
40) State the principle of calorimetre.
41) Which of the two, 1g of ice at 0°C or 1 gram of water at 0°C, contain more heat ? Give a reason for your answer.
42) Why the temperature of the surroundings starts falling when the ice of a frozen lake starts melting?
D) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1) Why does weather become pleasant when it starts freezing in cold countries ?
2) it is generally very cold after the hailstorm than during it. Why ?
3) Why does sandy soil get heated very quickly as compared to wet soil ?
4) Why does a wise farmer waters his fields, if forecast is frost.
5) On the basis of high specific heat capacity of water, explain formation of sea breeze
6) On the basis of high specific heat capacity of water, explain the fermentation of land breeze .
7) Why boils formed by steam are more painful than the boils formed with boiling water ?
8) Why do two pieces of ice join when pressed together ?
9) Why do icebergs sometimes reach the equatorial regions ?
10) Does the boiling point of water change with altitude? If so, how ?
11) Why is water in hot water bottles used for fermentation purpose ?
12) Explain why bottled soft drinks are more effectively cooled by ice cubes than by iced water .
13) If in a central heating system, steam enters a radiator pipes at 100°C and water leaves the radiator pipe at 100°C, can this radiator pipe heat a room ? Give an explanation for your answer.
14) it take a much longer time to boil off (change to steam ) a certain quantity of water, rather than to bring it to its boiling point from room temperature, say 25°C. Explain the reason for this.
15) Explain why one feels ice-cream at 0°C colder than water at 0°C.
QUESTION BASED ON DIAGRAMS
1) The graph shows in figure represents a cooling curve for a substance being cooled from a high temperature to a lower temperature.
a) What is the boiling point of the substance ?
b) What happens to the region DE ?
c) Why is the region DE shorter than the region BC ?
2) The graph shown in figure represents a cooling curve for a substance being cooled from high temperature to a lower temperature.
a) What is the boiling point of the substance ?
b) What happens in the region DE ?
c) Why is region DE shorter than the region BC ?
3) A piece of ice is heated at a constant rate. The variation of temperature with heat input is shown in the graph below:
a) What are represented by AB and CD ?
b) What conclusion can you draw regarding the nature of Ice from the above graph .
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C is called :
a) specific heat
b) heat of fusion
c) latent heat
d) neither specific heat nor latent heat
2) The specific heat capacity of copper is 0.1 cal g⁻¹°C. Its value in J kg⁻¹°C⁻¹ will be:
a) 0.84 x 10³ b) 0.42 x 10³ c) 0.24 x 10³ d) 4.2 x 10³
3) The SI unit of specific heat capacity is:
a) cal g⁻¹ b) joule °C⁻¹ c) J kg⁻¹°C⁻¹ d) kilo-cal° C⁻¹
4) The SI unit of specific latent heat is:
a) cal kg⁻¹ b) J kg⁻¹ c) cal° C⁻¹ d) J kg °C⁻¹
5) 1 kilocalorie is the amount of the heat which:
a) increase in the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1°F.
b) increases the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1°C.
c) increases the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C
d) increases the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°F
6) ice-cream at 0°C is colder than milk at 0°C because:
a) ice-cream is solid whereas milk is liquid
b) flavours have been added to the milk to make icecream.
c) heat has been removed from milk to change it into ice cream.
d) ice cream is expensive than milk.
7) Which of the two, land or water, cools at a faster rate ?
a) land
b) water
c) both cools at the same rate
d) it depends upon the amount of land and water
8) The boiling point of a liquid :
a) increases by the addition of impurities in it.
b) decreases by the addition of impurities in it.
c) does not affect by the addition of impurities in it.
d) none of these
9) According to the principal of calorimetry:
a) the heat lost by the hot body is greater than the heat gained by the cold body.
b) the heat lost by the hot body is less than the heat gained by the cold body
c) the heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body
d) none of these
10) The melting point of a substance:
a) increases by the addition of impurities in it.
b) decreases by addition of impurities in it
c) remain the same.
d) none of these
11) Water is used as a coolant in Motor car radiator because:
a) it is cheap and easily available.
b) it has a low specific capacity
c) it freezes at 0°C
d) It has a high specific heat capacity
12) The change from a solid to liquid on heating is called:
a) condensation
b) fusion
c) vaporo
d) sublimation
13) snow on mountain does not melt very fast because:
a) Ice has a high specific latent heat.
b) the highest of mountains is very much
c) the sun rays do not fall directly on mountains
d) ice has a low specific heat capacity
14) When a vapour condenses into a liquid:
a) its temperature rises
b) its temperature drops
c) it absorbs heat
d) it evolves heat
27/8/24
THE PERIODIC TABLE - PERIODIC PROPERTIES
a) The periodic table is based on the basic fundamental property ____(atomic weight/ atomic number/electronic configuration)
b) Elements arranged in increasing order of atomic___. (numbers/weights )
c) ____ horizontal rows are called____. (5/7/18 periods/ groups)
d) ____ vertical columns called____. (6/8/18/ periods/groups)
e) Transition from____ to___ character across a period. (metallic.nonmetallic)
f) Groups _____to___ sub_divided into A and B. (I/II/VI/VII)
g) Group ____to_____are called 'Normal' - 'representative elements'. (IA/II A/VIA/VIIA)
h) Group ___to____and___are called 'transition elements'. (IB/VIB/VIIB/VIII)
i) Group ___at extreme___contains 'noble gases'. (IA/0/VIIA/right/left)
j) _____elements placed in group IA & II A. (reactive, metalic/ reactive, nonmetallic)
k) ____ elements placed in the upper right hand corner.(nonmetallic /metallic)
l) Periodic in properties i.e., recurrence in properties are seen with elements belonging to the same____( period/ group/sub-group) in the periodic table after a difference of ___, ____, ____, or____. (18/2/32/8) in atomic numbers due to the recurrence of similar ____. (atomic weights/ number of shells/valence electronics configuration)
m) Alkali metals Li, Na are present in group____. (IB/I A/II A)
n) Alkaline earth metals Be, Mg, are present in group___. (IA/II A/IVA)
o) Post-transition metal- Al is present in group ____. (II A/III A/VIA)
p) Transition metal - Fe is present in group ____(VIIB/VIII/IB)
q) Transition metal- Zn is present in group _____. (IB/IIB/IIB)
r) Lanthanide series are present in period _____. (2/3/6/7)
s) Actinide series are present in period ____(2/3/6/7)
2) Name or state the following, pertaining to elements of the first three periods.
a) The number of electrons shells in period- 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
b) The period number of the elements 'X' having electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1.
c) The number of elements in the shortest period.
d) The number of short periods of the prediodic table.
e) The metallic elements in period-2 and period-3.
f) The non-metallic elements in period -2 and periods-3.
g) The element in period-2 and period-3 having stable electronic configuration.
h) The element in period-3 having 5 valence electrons.
i) The elements in period -2 having electronic configuration 2, 4.
j) The period/s having 8 elements.
k) The element having one shell and one valence electron.
l) The period containing i) rare earth elements ii) radioactive elements.
m) The bridge elements in period-2 which has a diagonal relationship with aluminium in period -3.
n) A metalloid in period-3.
o) The valency of the element in period-2 i) group-V ii) group -0.
p) The type of bonding of the chloride of the element in period-3 , group- II A.
q) The type of bonding of the oxide of the element in period-3, group III A & VIA.
r) The state of the chloride of the element in period-3 group- VIA.
s) The character of the oxide of the element in period-3 group- II A & III A.
t) The character of the hydroxide of the element in period-3 group IIA.
u) The element in periods-3 whose hydride is strong acid.
v) Two property trends of elements which increse from left to right in a period.
3) Name or state the following pertaining to Elements groups of the periodic table.
a) The number of valence electrons of the elements in group I A and II A.
b) The group number of the group having 3 columns of elements.
c) The group number to which lithium and sodium belong.
d) The group number to which magnesium and calcium belong.
e) The group containing highly reactive, electronegative non-metals only.
f) The group number to which elements with 7 valence electrons belong.
g) The type of elements present in group I B to VIIB and VIII.
h) The group to which inert, unreactive elements belong,
i) The group to which the most reactive metals belong.
j) The two property trends which remain same or similar down a sub-group.
k) The two property trends which increase down a sub-group.
l) A non-metal in group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature.
m) Two non-metals which react with a group VIIA element forming liquid chlorides .
n) An element from group IA which reacts with an element of group VIIA forming a soluble electrovalent compound.
o) An element from group IA which dissolves in water to give caustic potash.
p) A strong reducing agent from the elements - sodium of group IA and fluorine of group VIIA.
q) The element in group VIIA with the highest electronegativity.
4) Complete the table pertaining to periodicity of elements by selecting the correct term/s in each case.
a) The Modern Periodic Law states that properties of elements are periodic functions of their ____. (Atomic mass/ molecular mass/ atomic numbers)
b) The properties which reappear at regular intervals in the periodic table are called ____. (atomic/ period/periodic properties)
c) _____ is one of the periodic properties. periodic nature. (electronic configuration/ atomic radius/ electron pull)
d) ______ is the energy required to remove an electron from the outmost shell of a gaseous atom. (Ionization potential/electron affinity)
e) The unit of ionization potential is_____(mV/eV/iV)
f) _____ is the amount of energy released when atom an atom in the gaseous state accepts an electron to form an anion. (Ionization potential/ electronegativity/electron affinity)
g) Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract____ to itself when combined in a compound. (Proton /electron/ions)
h) If the electronegativity difference between two combining atoms is small the bond between them is _____(electrovalent/covalent/co-ordinate covalent)
i) An element is said to be____ if it loses one or more electrons when supplied with energy. ( non-metal/metal/metalloid)
j) The unit of atomic radii is____. (°0C/A°/eV)
k) A ____is formed from a metal by loss of electrons. (Anions/cations/ proton)
l) Electron affinity of an atom is expressed in ____(A°/eV/mV)
m) An element 'X' gains an electron when supplied with energy. The electronic configuration of X is_____.(2. 8/2, 8, 1/2, 8, 7)
n) An element 'Y' has atomic number 7 and mass number 14. It's neutron/proton (n/p) ratio is _____(3/1.5/1)
o) In the same period or sub-group, increase or decrease in a particular (periodic) property is due to gradual charge in _____.(atomic weight/ atomic size/ electronic configuration) in the arranged elements.
5) Select the correct element in each case.
a) Select the elements with the largest atomic radii -
C, Be, N, F, Li
b) Select the element with the smallest atomic radii-
F, Ne, O
c) Select the element which has a higher electronegativity-
N, F, Cl
d) Select the element which has zero electron affinity-
C, Li, O, Ne
e) Select the elements which show metallic character-
Na, Al, Si, P
f) Select the elements which show non-metallic character-
Be, C, Li, Cl
g) Select the elements which show metalloid character-
Be, B, C, N, F, Si
h) Select the elements which have three electron shells -
Li, B, Al, S
i) Select the element which has the common valency 3-
Li, Be, B, C, Al
j) Select the element having least electronegativity-
F, Cl, Br
k) Select the element having the smallest atomic size-
F, Cl, Br
l) Select the element having the largest atomic radii -
N, P, As
m) Select 2 elements whose electronegativity difference is large-
Na, C, Cl
n) Select two elements whose electronegativity is almost the same--
Li, F, Na, Ne
o) Select the element with the least electron affinity-
O, C, Ne, F
p) Select the element with the highest ionization potential-
O, F, Ne
6) Arrange the following elements of different periods as per guidelines given below:
A ELEMENTS C O N Li F Ne B Be
B ELEMENTS Mg Si S Al Cl Na Ar P
a) According to their decreasing atomic radii .
b) According to their decreasing ionization potential.
c) According to their increasing electronegativity.
d) According to their increasing electron affinity .
e) According to their metallic, non-metallic and noble gas character.
7) Arrange the following elements of different groups as per the guidelines given below:
A B
Na Br
K F
Li Cl
a) According to their decreasing atomic radii .
b) According to their increasing electronegativity.
c) According to their decreasing ionization potential.
8) State the correct factors which affect the following periodic properties in column I from the factors given in the column II
Column I
The factor which affects
a) Atomic size --down a group
b) Ionization potential --down a group
c) Electron affinity --down a group
d) metallic character--down a group
Column II
i) number of shells, nuclear charge
ii) nuclear charge, atomic radii
iii) number of shell, nuclear charge
iv) ionization potential, electron affinity
9) Select the correct reason for each of the statements given below from the choice of reasons A and B.
a) Characteristic properties occurr at definite intervals in the Modern Periodic Table
A: The definite intervals are after difference of either 1 or 8 or 16 or 32 in atomic numbers.
B: The definite intervals are after difference of either 2 or 8 or 18 or 32 in atomic number.
b) Fluorine in group VIIA has a smaller atomic size than neon in group 0.
A: Outer shell in neon is completely filled, resulting in a form of repulsion.
B: Nuclear charge in fluorine atom is more than in the neon atom.
c) First ionization potential of an atom is less than the second ionization potential.
A: Energy required to remove first electron is more than that required to remove second electron.
B: energy required to remove first electron is less than required to remove second electron.
d) Electron affinity of group 0 elements is zero.
A: Elements with stable electronic configuration. find it difficult to accept electrons.
B: elements with suitable electronic configuration find it difficult to lose electrons .
e) Elements with high electronegativity are usually non metallic.
A: non-metallic elements tend to gain electrons when supplied with energy.
B: non-metallic elements tend to lose electrons were supplied with energy.
f) Down a group, metallic character increases since ionization potential decreases.
A: nuclear attraction for valence electrons decreases and electrons are loosely held.
B: Nuclear attraction for valence electrons increases and electrons are strongly held.
•decrease •increase •remain the same
a) Across a period in a Periodic Table
i) Ionization potential
ii) Electron affinity
iii) Electronegativity
iv) Non-metallic character
v) Density and melting point
vi) Acidic nature of oxy-acids
b) Down a group in a Periodic Table
i) Ionizing potential
ii) Electron affinity
iii) Electronegativity
iv) Non-metallic character
v) Density and melting point
vi) Acidic nature of hydrides
Reason for increase or decrease in Periodic Properties :
c) Across a period in a Period Table
i) Atomic size ______because, nuclear charge ____,no. of shells____
ii) Ionization potential ____ because, nuclear charge ____,atimic radii____
iii) Non-metallic character____because, ionization potential____,atomic radii ____
iv) Electron affinity____because, nuclear charge____, atomic radii___
v) Electronegativity_____because, atomic redii____, nuclear charge____
vi) Metallic character___ because, ionization potential ___, atomic radii___
d) Down a group in periodic table
i) Atomic size____ because no. of shells____nuclear charge____
ii) Ionization potential____ because atomic radii ___nuclear charge ____
iii) Non metallic character____because ionization potential____, atomic radii ___
iv) Electron affinity____because, atomic Radii____,nuclear charge____
v) Electronegativity ___because, nuclear charge ____,atomic radii ____
vi) Metallic character____ because, atomic radii ____, ionization potential
Eye
1) Myopia can be corrected by ____(convex lens, concave lens, surgery).
2) Presbyopia is generally an age related eye defect. T/F.
3) State one main function of Iris.
4) Nocturnal creatures avoid light. T/F.
5) Image is formed on blind spot. T/F.
6) Name opening through which light enter the eyes.
7) Cones are the receptor cells in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light. T/F.
8) Odd one out: Retina, Cochlea, Iris, Pupil.
9) Myopia (Symptom and Cause)
10) Mention two functions of the choroid coat in the eye.
11) Odd one out: Rods, Cones, Night blindness, Rhodopsin.
12) Draw a cross section of the human eye and on the diagram label each of the following:
a) i) the retina ii) the cornea iii) the ciliary muscles iv) the pupil v) the portion of the image of a distant object if the eye is shorr sighted.
b) How does the intensity of the light entering the eye affect the Iris ?
13) a) How is the image formed on the retina ?
b) How is the amount of light entering the eye controlled ?
c) What type of lens is used for the correction of "Long-sight" defect ?
d) With the help of a ray diagram show the defect of the eye and then its correction after use of lens.
14) The diagram represents a certain defect of vision of the human eye.
a) Name the defect.
b) Describe briefly the condition in the eye responsible for the defect .
c) What special advantages do human beings derive in having both eye facing forward ?
15) The defect of hypermetropia is corrected by_____.
16) Describe the role of Iris.
17) Position of image in myopia and hypermetropia , and the kind of the lenses used in the correcting these defects.
18) Given below is the diagram of the human eye.
a) Label the part 1 to 12 marked by guidelines.
b) Name three parts of eye which help to refract light .
c) Name an eye related defect.
19) Define the role of Blind spot.
20) Odd one out: Iris, pupil, lens, stapes, retina, sclera.
21) Why bright light focussed on the eye causes blinking.
22) opening through which light enter the eyes.
23) The part of the eye responsible for change in the size of the pupil is the ___.
24) The diagram represents a certain defect of vision of the human eye:
a) Name the defect .
b) Re-draw the figure correctly adding a suitable lens.
c) what special advantage do human beings derive in both eyes facing forwards ?
25) give one word : The region in the eye where an image invisible.
26) Write one important function of Pupi in eye.
27) The following diagram shows some parts of the eyes essential for image formation.
Redraw in each case showing the position of image if the person is
a) myopic
b) hypermetropic.
28) Write one important role of Yellow spot.
29) a) Draw a cross-section of the human eye and on the diagram label and show the position of the image of an object if the eyes is long sighted.
b) How is the eye protected ?
c) How does the intensity of the light entering the eye affect the Iris ?
30) Mention any two dissimilarities between eye and camera.
31) Write the function of Cones.
32) Write the role of Retina in eye.
33) Write the site and one function of cornea.
34) Forms the black pigmented layer in the eye.
35) Region in the eye where the rods and cones are located is the____ (retina, cornea, choroid)
FORCE
1) How do you define force ?
2) Give one example each infollowing cases
a) pull
b) push
c) A force producing motion
d) A force tending to produce motion.
e) A force increasing Speed.
f) A force decreasing speed.
g) A force changing direction of motion.
3) A body is moving with uniform velocity along a straight line. What happens when a force is applied to it?
a) along the direction of motion
b) opposite to the direction of motion.
c) at right angles to the direction of motion.
4) Give one example of force belonging to the category of interaction at a distance.
5) State three effects of a force.
6) What is the relation between force and acceleration ?
7) Name and state the law which gives us quantitative definition of force . Who gave this law?
8) Mathematical form of Newton's second law of motion is
F= Kma
where 'K' is dimensionless constant.
a) Generally, we take the value of K to be one. Why do we do so ?
b) Will the law be valid if we take value the of K to be something other than one ?
c) if we take the value of K to be 5, what changes in the units of measurement of force will be necessary.
d) If we use F= 8 ma as the mathematical form of Newton's second law of motion, how would you define a unit force ?
9) What does kgms⁻² represent ?
10)a) What is the relation between kgms⁻² and kgf ?
b) Which of the two, kgf or newton greater ?
11) A force acting on a mass 10 kg produces an acceleration of 5 ms⁻². What is the magnitude of the force ?
i) In newton
ii) In KGF
12) A force on 10N acts on a body mass 2kg for 5 second. Calculate the velocity of body if it starts from rest.
13) A force of 50 N acts on a body for 5 second. What will be the momentum of the body after 5s ?
14) Name different forces in nature.
15) What do you mean by the turning affect of a force ?
16) Give one example illustrating the turning effect of the force.
17) Name and define the quantity which measures the turning effect of a force. What is its unit ?
18) State the factors upon which the torque depends.
19) Under what circumstances , the turning effect of a force will be zero?
20) What do you mean by the moment of a force ?
21) State the principle of moments.
22) Two weights of 0.05 kg and 0.06 kg are suspended at 30 cm 90 cm mark of a metre rod is shown in figure.
Calculate the resultant moment about F.
23) Calculate the value of W, so that the metre rod as shown in figure should be horizontal.
24) A metre rod is balanced on a pivot at the 50 cm mark. A weight of 0.15 kg is suspended at 80cm mark while another body 0.1 kg is suspended at P(figure).
The metre rod is uniform. Neglecting the mass of metre rod , find
a) distance of the points P from F.
b) the mass to be the suspended zero mark if the point P is 20 cm from the pivot.
c) the additional mass to be added to 0.1kg if the 0.15 kg mass werr replaced by 0.2 kg.
25) a) What do you mean by parallel forces ?
b) What do you mean by the anti-parallel forces ?
26) What is meant by a couple ? illustrated by giving two examples.
27)a) What do you define moment of a couple ?
b) Name the unit in which moment of a couple is measured.
28) figure shows a odoor having a handle H at a distance of 100cm from the point X. The door is closed by pushing at a point between X and H. Figure a shows a graph between force F and the distance x of its point of application from X.
a) Using graph, determine the least force on the handle to close the door.
b) What force will be the required if the point of application is halfway between X and H ?
c) Find the distance from X of the point of application of force if the force applied is 40N.
29) A uniform metre rod is capital of turning about a fine wedge placed its central point. Weight 0.02 kg and 0.03 kg are suspended at 30 cm and 90cm mark respectively. Where should a weight of 0.08 kg be suspended so that the metre rod is exactly horizontal ?
30) Two equival weight, suspended from the points, of a uniform metre rod, pivoted at its centre of gravity, keep the road horizontal . If one of them is placed at 25 cm mark, where should the other weight be suspended?
31) A spanner is used to turn a nut (figure) in the clockwise direction.
a) Which section P, Q and R is most convenient for the force to be applied?
b) With the help of an arrowhead show the direction of the force .
32) A crow bar whose dimensions has shown in figure is used to lift a load.
a) Mark the position of pivot of the crow bar as F.
b) Mark the position of application of force as P such that the force applied is minimum.
c) If the load is 500 pN and is supposed to be situated on the tip of the crow bar, what minimum force is needed to lift the load.
33) While using large cranes show in figure, a concrete counter weight is used on the side opposite to that of load. 
a) Why do we use these counter weights ?
b) Calculate the value of x from figure
c) What should be the shift in the position of counter weight if the load is increased by 3000N ?
d) To which side will this shift take place?
34) How do you define mass of a body ?
35) How do you define weight of a body ?
36) a) What are the units of mass in MKS system ?
b) What are the units of the weights in MKS system ?
i) fundamental units
ii) gravitational units
37) What is the relation between mass and weight ?
38) What do you mean by the centre of gravity of a body ?
39) How would you locate the centre of gravity in following cases ?
a) Sphere
b) Cylinder
c) Triangular lamina
40) How would you locate the centre of gravity of a body of irregular shape ?
41) Why is centre of gravity so named ?
42) What will the net moment of weight of all the particles in a body about its centre of gravity?
43) Explain the following:
a) Why do we have the bend forward while moving up an inclined plane ?
b) persons are not allowed to stand in boats.
c) Bottom of the ships are made-up of heavy material.
d) A girl working on a tight rope holds a bamboo in her hands.
e) If we bend forward, while standing on one foot, our second leg automatically goes backward.
f) Different machine are provided with very heavy bases.
g) In a double deckar bus people are not allowed to stand in upper deck.
44) Name an instrument used to measure force .
45) which of the following is not a force.
a) friction b) mass c) weight
46) a) What is the direction weight of a body ?
b) Four bodies A, B, C and D baby are placed at different places on the surface of earth in the diagram, mark the directions of their weights.
47) Fill in the blanks:
a) Force produces or tends to produce___ in a body.
b) A force acting on a body along its direction of motion results in a change in ___.
c) A force acting on a body at right angle to the direction of motion of body result in a changes in its ____ of motion.
d) Force is proportional to the product of ___and____
e) kgms⁻² is the unit of ____ in MKS system.
f) unit of weight of the main case system is mass of a body does her direction moment
g) Mass of a body does _____ have direction.
h) Moment of a force is equal to the product of force and its ____distance from the axis.
i) Unit of a moment of a force, in SI, is_____
j) Angle between two unlike parallel forces is____
k) According to the principal of moments, the ____sum of the monuments of all the forces acting at different points is zero.
l) A combination of two____ and____ parallel forces is called a couple.
m) Centre of gravity of a____ lamina lies at the point of intersection of its diagonals.
48) State whether the followings are true or false.
a) Kgf is the unit of force.
b) kg ms⁻² is the unit of force.
c) F=7 ma does not represent Newton's second Lplaw of motion.
d) Weight of a body can be measured in newton.
e) Mass of body can be measured in Kgf.
f) Weight of a body is a scalar quantity.
g) Weight of a body varies from place to place.
h) Units of turning effect of force is Nm.
i) Torque is equal to the product of force and distance.
j) if the line of action of force passes through the falcrum, Turk is zero.
k) Moment of a force and torque are different entities.
l) Centre of gravity of a body always lies at the centre.
m) Centre of gravity of a cylinder lies on one of its faces.
n) Heavy luggage is loaded near the bottom of a ship, since it is safe there.
FORCE
1) Moment of force is ____proportional to the distance of point of application of force and fulcrum
a) inversely b) directly c) not d) none
2) Lessor the force applied____ is the moment of force.
a) greater b) lessor c) equal d) none
3) Clockwise moments are considered to be____.
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) all of these
4) _____moments are considered to be positive.
a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) total d) none
5) For equilibrium ____ sum of moments is equal to _____ sum of all anticlockwise moments.
a) arithmetic, arithmetic
b) algebraic, algebraic
c) total, none of d) all of these
6) The weight of an object lies at the____
a) Centre of mass b) centre of buoyancy c) centre of gravity d) geometric centre always.
7) The CG of a regular object would lie__
a) on the body b) outside of the body c) inside the body d) all of these
8) The CG of a regular object will depend on ____
a) distribution of mass.
b) volume of the body.
c) density of the body d) all of these
9) Longer the size of the key___ it is to open a safe vault .
a) easier b) convenient
c) lesser the force required by
d) none of the above
10) Huge trailer trucks have their steering wheel of ____diameter
a) large b) small c) least d) all of these
11) Can a couple pair of forces keep the body in equilibrium
a) yes b) no c) data insufficient d) none
12) Centre of gravity is ___when it is a hollow cone.
a) raised from the base
b) lower towards the base
c) centre of the vertical axis d) non
13) C. G of a solid and hollow sphere are ___
a) the same b) different c) almost the same d) geometric centre
14) uniform circular motion has____
a) constant speed and variable velocity
b) variable speed and constant velocity
c) circular motion with uniform speed
d) none of these
15) uniform linear motion has____
a) constant speed, variable velocity
b) constant speed, constant velocity
c) variables speed , constant velocity
d) variable speed, variable velocity
16) When a body moves in a circular path, inward seeking force is called ___
a) Centrifugal force b) tension force c) tangential force d) centripetal force
17) When a body moves in a circular path, outward force is called a ___
a) pseudo force
b) centrifugal force
c) centripetal force
d) reaction force
18) For a body to perform uniform circular motion, ____
a) centrifugal force is equal to the centripetal force
b) centrifugal force is less than centripetal force
c) centripetal force is less than centrifugal force
d) centripetal and centrifugal forces cancel each other.
19) Find the maximum force required to open a nut by a spanner of length 50cm producing a torque of 50Nm ?
a) 10N b) 100N c) 0.1N d) none
20) 100 dyne cm is equals to___Nm.
a) 10⁵ b) 1/10⁵ c) 0 d) 0.001
21) 10⁻¹⁰ Nm is equal to ___dyne cm.
a) 10⁻⁴ b) 10 c) 0.001 d) none
22) Find the weight of half metre scale balanced at 5cm mark when of 10gf is suspended at one of its ends.
a) 2.5 gf b) 100gf c) 0.2gf d) 50gf
23) Find the resultant moment of couple if two equal forces each of 6N are acting at a distance of 3cm each from the centre.
a) 36Nm b) 360Nm c) 3.6Nm d) 0.36Nm
24) centripetal force is____ while centrifugal force is ____
a) real, real b) real ,virtual c) virtual real d) virtual virtual
Very Short Questions
1) What is meant by rotational motion ? How is it different from translational motion ?
2) Give few examples of rotational motion.
3) Define moment of force.
4) Write the relationship between the SI and CGS unit of moment of force.
5) Is moment of a force scalar or a vector quantity?
6) Name the factors affecting the turning effect of a body ?
7) State the gravitational units of torque.
8) If the moment of force is assigned a negative sign, then will the turning tendency of the force be clockwise or anticlockwise?
9) Will a door open if a force is applied on its hinges ?
10) Why is the handle of a door provided at its free end away from the hinges?
11) If one light and one heavy person sit on a see-saw, what should be their positions to maintain a balance or equilibrium around the fulcrum?
12) Which of these would be easier to turn: a steering wheel of small diameter and a steering wheel of large diameter ?
13) why does a wrench has a long handle ?
14) In the diagram given below, a force F is applied on a bicycle tyre at two different points are shown in the figure A and B. Which of these wheels will have a more turning effect ? if the two wheels need to have equal turning effect, how should the force be changed ?
15) In the figure below A, B, C and D are forces of equal magnitude around a point O. The distance of forces A, B, C and D from point O are 3cm, 7cm, 1.5cm and 4.5cm, respectively . Among these forces ,
a) Which force has the greatest moment about point O?
b) Which force has the smallest moment about the point O ?
16) The position of centre of gravity of a body remains unchanged even when the body is deformed. Is the statement true or false ?
NUMERICAL PROBLEM
1) A force of 5N is applied at a perpendicular distance of 0.2m from a pivoted point. Calculate the moment of force.
2) The moment of force of 8N about a fixed point is 4Nm. Calculate the distance of the point from the line of action of force.
3) A nut can be opened by a wrench of lengths 50cm with a force of 120N. If a smaller force of 75N is applied, what will be the required length of the handle of the wrench?
4) In the figure, a bicycle wheel of circumference 8m is shown. A force of 4N is applied at the point P in the direction shown. Calculate the moment of force at
a) point O
b) point Q.
5) Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a uniform bar AB of length 6m, which is pivoted in the centre of shown in the figure. Determine the magnitude of moment of force. 
a) at the end A
b) at the end of B
c) total amount moment of couple.
6) Two forces F₁=5N and F₂ = 8N are acting at points P and Q of a rod pivoted at a point O such that OP= 8m and OQ= 2m.
Calculate the
a) moment of force F₁ at point O,
b) moment of force F₂ at point O
c) total moment of the two forces at point O.
7) A uniform meter scale is balanced at 60cm mark, when weights of 5gf and 40gf are suspended from 10cm mark and 80cm mark, respectively. Calculate the weight of the meter scale.
8) A uniform metre scale weighing 100gf is pivot at a point O, a 25cm mark. A 80gf weight is hung from 10cm mark and a 30gf weight is hung from 70cm mark as shown in the figure.
Calculate
a) the total anticlockwise moment about point O
b) The total clockwise moment about point O
c) the net resultant moment.
9) A uniform metre scale of mass 50g is balanced on the edge of a knife at mark 60cm by suspending an unknown mass at the 80cm mark. Find the value of the unknown mass.
10) A see-saw of 8m long is balanced in the middle. Two children of mass 30kgf and 40 kgf are sitting on the same side of the fulcrum at a distance of 1.5m and 3.5m respectively, from the fulcrum. At what distance must an adult person of weight 60 kgf sit from the fulcrum so as to balance the see-saw?
11) A uniform metre scale of weight 20gf is pivoted at its zero mark. Calculate
a) the moment of force that depress the scale
b) what would be the magnitude of least force applied on it to make it horizontal?
12) A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70cm mark when a mass of 0.05kg is hung from the 94cm mark
a) Draw the diagram of the arrangement
b) Find the mass of the metre scale.
13) A red bull tin is to be opened by means of a screwdriver as shown in the figure. Find the minimum effort required to flick open the lid ?
PAPER- 1 (CHEMISTRY)
1) a) Name the gas produced in each of the following reactions. Do not write the formula of gas.
i)When concentrated nitric acid is poured over copper turnings.
ii) When chlorine water is exposed one concentrated nitric acid is what the copper turning when chlorine water is exposed to direct sunlight.
iii) When a mixture of Ammonium Sulphate and Sodium hydroxide is gently heated.
iv) When Ammonium nitrate gently heated (named the gas having nitrogen in its chemical composition).
v) When sulphur is burnt in air.
b) State your observations in the following cases:
i) An alkaline solution is tested with neutral litmus solution.
ii) Sodium chloride solution is mixed with lead nitrate solution.
iii) Sulphur is burnt in air.
iv) Ethane gas is passed through a solution of bromine is carbon tetrachloride.
v) Ammonium hydroxide is added into iron(III) sulphate solution.
c) i) who proposed the following gas law ? "when gases react under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, their reacting volumes bear a simple ratio to each other."
ii) 2C₂H₆ + 7O₂---> 4CO₂+ 6H₂O.
What volume of Oxygen gas is required to completely burn 100 litres of ethane according to equation stated above?
iii) Gas volumes(liters) no. of molecules
nitrogen 20 N
chlorine 10
Sulphur dioxide 5
Ammonia 20
Table above shows volumes of various gases collected under similar conditions of temperature and pressure. If the volume of Nitrogen has N molecules, copy the table and fill in the number of molecules.
d)Salt sol.of Zn Barium chloride. Lead
nitrate sol
zinc sulphate solution
Zinc chloride solution
Zinc nitrate solution
Table above shows the summary of observations when barium chloride solution and Lead nitrate solutions are added to different soluble salt solutions of zinc. Copy and complete the table, write either no reaction or white precipitate .
e)i) super phosphate of lime has formula Ca(H₂PI₄)₂. Calculate the percentage of phosphorus in it correct to 1 decimal places.
(Ca=40; H=1; P= 31; O=16)
ii) Balance the equation given below
Ca₃(PO₄)₂ + H₂SO₄ ---> Ca(H₂PO₄)₂+ CaSO₄.
iii) Fill in the blank space, so as to complete the statement below:
Super phosphate of lime is an example of a compound called ____.(acid salt/normal salt/basic salt).
f) Write balanced equations for the following reactions:
i) An acid with an alkali. (you can choose any acid/alkali).
ii) Sodium sulphite and dilute sulphuric acid.
iii) Hot concentrated potassium hydroxide solution with chlorine gas.
g) Copy and complete the statements given below by choosing word/s at the end of each statement:
i) The element at the bottom of a group is expected to show ____metallic character than the element at the top of a group. (less/more).
ii) The similarities in the properties of elements in a group is because they have the same___(electronic configuration/ number of outer electrons).
iii) The properties of elements are periodic function of their ____.(mass numbers /atomic numbers).
iv) Moving across a ____of the periodic table, elements show increasing____ character.( group/ period/ metallic/non-metallic).
h) Name the terms described by the following statements:
i) An acidic solution in which there is partial ionization of molecules of solute.
ii) The mass of a given volume of gas compared to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen.
iii) a compound containing carbon and hydrogen atoms only.
iv) a base which is soluble in water.
v) An insoluble substance formed when two soluble salt solutions are mixed together.
2) a) Write fully balance chemical equations for the following reactions :
i) Ammonia gas and hydrogen chloride gas.
ii) Ammonium chloride and Calcium hydroxide.
iii) sodium chloride and Sulphuric Acid.
State whether Sulphuric acid should be dilute or concentrated.
b) i) Name the products formed when Ammonia gas is oxidized by copper oxide.
ii) Name a lead compound which can oxidise hydrogen chloride to chlorine gas.
c) State the chemical difference in the nature of aqueous solution of Ammonium and aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride.
3) Ethanol can be converted into ethene, which then can be changed to ethane. Fill in blank spaces by choosing appropriate word/s given at the end of each statement below:
i) The conversion of ethanol to ethene is an example of______dehydrogenation/ dehydration).
ii) converting ethanol into ethene requires a use of____( conc. Sulphuric acid/ conc. hydrochloric acid/conc. Nitric acid).
iii) the conversion ethene to ethane is an example of ____(hydration/hydrogenation).
iv) the catalyst employed in the conversion of ethene into ethane is ____(iron/nickel/ Cobalt).
c) By choosing appropriate word/s complete the statements given below. words are:
( addition , carbohydrates , electrochemical, unsaturated, saturated, substitution, homologous ,hydrocarbons, CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ ; CₙH₂ₙ ; CₙH₂ₙ₋₁)
The alkanes form an ---- series, with general formula ____. The alkanes are ____ , ____, which generally undergo ____reactions.
Homologous
4) a) Write fully balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
i) dilute sulphuric acid and lead nitrate solution.
ii) Dilute nitric acid used to produce carbon dioxide gas.
iii) dilute sulphuric acid used to produce hydrogen gas.
iv) concentrated nitric acid and copper sharings.
b) i) Classify the following aqueous solutions as acids, bases and salts:
NH₄OH ; BaCl₂ ; NaCl ; NaOH; H₂SO₄ ; HNO₃.
ii) State how one of the aqueous solutions in 4(b)(i), enables you to distinguish between aqueous solutions of two acids in 4(b)(i).
c) Choose the correct words given at the end of the statement and, hence, copy and complete sentences below:
i) sulphur can be converted into sulphuric acid by using_____(conc. nitric acid/dilute nitric acid).
ii) Write fully balanced equation for the above reaction.
iii) sodium nitrate on treating with_____ produces nitric acid. (concentric sulphuric acid/ dilute sulphuric acid).
iv) Write fully balanced equation for above reaction.
5)a) A volatile chloride of metal M contains 65.5% of chlorine. if the density of metal chloride relative to hydrogen is 162.5, calculate the molecular formula of metal chloride.
(M= 56; Cl= 35.5)
b) The reaction between Nitrogen (I) oxide (N₂O) and methane takes place in the gaseous state as under:
4N₂O+ CH₄---> CO₂+ 2H₂O+ 4N₂
if all volumes are measured at same temperature and pressure, calculate the volume of Nitrogen(I) oxide required to produce 150 cm³ of steam.
c) Ammonium dichromate on heating decomposes as shown in chemical equation below:
(NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇----> Cr₂O₃ + 4H₂O+ N₂
i) How much volume of Nitrogen gas at STP is evolved from 63g of (NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ ?
ii) How much is the mass of the chromium oxide formed at the same time ?
(Na=14; H=1; Cr= 52; O= 16).
6) Dilute sulphuric acid; copper; iron sodium; zinc ; copper carbonate; sodium carbonate
Choosing only from the list of substances mentioned above, write the equation for the reaction which you would use in laboratory to obtain:
i) zinc carbonate
ii) copper sulphate
iii) sodium sulphate
iv) iron(II )sulphate.
b) ZnSO₄. 7H₂O; PB(NO₃)₂; NaCl; ZnCO₃; NaHSO₄ ; KNO₃ ; AgCl; CuSO₄. 15H₂O; CuSO₃.
From the list of the salts given above, choose one salt in each case which describes the statements below:
i) An insoluble chloride.
ii) A salt which changes from Green to Black on heating.
iii) a salt which gives nitrogen dioxide gas on heating.
iv) a salt whose aqueous solution is acidic in nature.
v) A salt which changes from Blue to white colour when placed in concentric sulphuric acid.
7)a) zinc metal is extracted commercially from zinc blend. The zinc is roasted and the solid residue is mixed with coke and then fired in blast furnace, when vapours zinc are given out:
i) name the chemical compound in zinc blende.
ii) write a chemical equation for the roasting of the zinc blende
iii) What for Coke is used ?
iv) name the reducing agent in the extraction of zinc.
v) how are zinc vapours condensed to formed liquid zinc?
PAPER- 1 (BIOLOGY)
1) Name the following
i) Cytoplasmic organelles that help in the manufacturing of starch.
ii) Pair of genes responsible for a particular characteristic in an individual.
iii) A solution whose concentration is greater than that of the cell sap.
iv) The fluid that provides protection and nourishment to the cells of the brain.
b) State whether the following statements are true or false. If false , write the correct statement by changing the incorrect word/s only
i) The symbiotic bacteria that helps in Nitrogen fixation is Rhizobium radicicola.
ii) Rods are responsibile for vision in the dark.
iii) The dark reaction of photosynthes is light independent.
c) Match the items in column A with those are most appropriate in column B. You must rewrite the matching pairs.
Column A
1) Meiosis
2) protective covering of the brain
COLUMN - B
A) Glucagon
B) Meninges
C) Iris
D) Cell
E) Insulin
F) Skin Cell
G) Protoplasm
H) Sperm
I) Ciliary muscles
d) Given below is an apertures used to study a particular process in plants. Study the same and the answer the questions that follow :
i) Name the apparatus
ii) Mention one limitation of this apparatus.
iii) Which phenomena is studied with the help of this apparatus ?
iv) What is the function of the part marked 'reservoir'?
v) What is the role of the air bubble in the experiment.
e) In the box given below is a list of biological terms that can be used to complete statements that follow. Select the appropriate term from the box and rewrite the completed statement. You may use a term only once.
(Concave, Neuron , Lactic acid, Glucose, Animal waste, Gestation , Nerve, Ethyl alcohol, Nephron, Myopia, DDT, pregnancy, convex )
i) The basic unit of the human brain is the______
f) Given below are the functions of certain organ/structures found in living organisms . In each case, name the organs or structure that:-
i) Transmits characteristics from parent to offspring.
ii) Transports water from the soil to other parts of the plant.
iii) Initiates cell division.
g) Explain the following terms:
i) Guttation
ii) Osmosis
iii) Mutation
h) Given below is a set of terms arranged in logical sequence, representing a process or a function. Of these, one term is incorrect. Identify the incorrect term and replace it with the correct term. One has been done for you as an example.
Eg. Pollen grain --> Exine--> Staminal tube --> Male gametes---> Micropyle.
incorrect term -- Staminal tube. Correct term --- Pollen tube
i) Soil water--> Root hair--> Cells of cortex --> Epidermis --> Xylem.
ii) Sensory nerve --> Dorsal root ganglion --> Sensory Neuron--> Motor neuron--> Receptor .
2) a) Differentiate between the following on the basis of what is given in the brackets.
i) Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis (Explain the terms).
ii) Mitosis and Meiosis ( number of daughter cells formed ).
iii) Pure and Hybrid strains (definition).
3) i) Draw a neat diagram and well labelled diagram of the chloroplast.
ii) List the events taking place in the photochemical phase of photosynthesis.
iii) If you are planning an experiment to show the effect of light on photosynthesis:
a) will you select white light or green light ? Justify your answer.
b) Why would you select a destarched plant.
4) Expand biological abbreviation .
1. DNA
5) i) State Mendel's law of independent Assortment.
ii) A homozygous Tall plant(T) bearing red coloured(R) flowers is crossed with homozygous dwarf plant(t) bearing white flowers(r).
1. Give the genotype and phenotype of the F₁ generation.
2. Give the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained from the F₁ hybrid
3. Give the dehydrate ratio and the phenotype of the offspring of the F₂ generation when two plants of the F₁ generation above are crossed.
6) a) The diagram given alongside represents a stage during mitotic cell division in an animal cell:-
i) identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
ii) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
iii) What is the chromosome number of the cell ?
iv) draw a neat, labelled diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.
b) Give reasons for the following:
i) plants begin to die when excess of soluble fertilizers are added to the soil.
ii) injury to the medulla oblongota results in death .
iii) Gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes .
iv) Green leaves are thin and broad.
No comments:
Post a Comment