CLASS- IX

CHEMISTRY TERMINOLOGY - CHEMICAL REACTIONS

      THE LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY 

1) State the valency and name the ion or radical in each of the following cases given below (The first example is completed for you):

Electrical ent positive ions or radicals 

Symbol/Valency        Name

a) K¹⁺                        Potassium 

b) Na

c) H

d) NH₄

e) Ca

f) Mg

g) Zn

h) Ba

i) Ni

i) Co

j) Al

k) Cr

Variable valencies 

a) Cu¹⁺

b) Cu

c) Hg¹⁺

d) Hg

e) Fe²⁺

f) Fe

g) Mn²⁺

h) Mn

i) Pb²⁺

j) Pb

k) Pt²⁺

l) Pt

Electrovalent negative ion or radicals

Symbol/valency      Name

a) Cl¹⁻                     Chloride 

b) ClO₃

c) ClO

d) Br

e) I

f) OH

g) NO₂

h) NO₃

i) HCO₃

j) HSO₃

k) HSO₄

l) AlO₂

m) MnO₄

n) SO₃

o) SO₄

p) S

q) CO₃

r) O

s) CrO₄

t) Cr₂O₇

u) ZnO₂

v) PbO₂

w) PO₄

x) N

y) C

2) State the valency of each of the elements in the respective compounds:

a) Sulphur in    (i) sulphur dioxide 

                           ii) sulphur trioxide 

b) Nitrogen in    i) Nitrogen monoxide 

                           ii) Nitrogen dioxide 

                          iii) dinitrogen oxide 

                          iv) dinitrogen pentoxide 

c) Copper in      i) cupric oxide 

                          ii) Cuprous oxide 

3) Give the formulas of the following compounds whose metallic radical exhibits variable valency.

a) Cupric nitrate.

b) Cuprous chloride.

c) Iron(II) sulphate.

d) Mercuric nitrate.

e) Plumbous chloride.

f) Stannous chloride.

g) Mangannic sulphate.

h) Platinic chloride.

i) Mercurous chloride.

j) Iron [II] nitrate.

4) Give the name of the compounds whose formulas are listed below:

a) HNO₂       ___

b) HCO₃            |

c) H₂C₂O₄.        |

d) H₃PO₄          |   --- Acids

e) CH₃COOH    |

g) Al(OH)₃

h) CaSiO₃.

i) Na₂ZnO₂.

j) K₂CrO₄.

k) Mg₃N₂.

5) A chemical equation is a shorthand form for a chemical change 

a) 2KClO₃  ---∆--> 2KCl + 3O₂.

     i) In the above reaction name the reactant and the products.

     ii) State what the arrow in between indicates.

6) Balance the following equations.

a) CuO+ NH₃ --> Cu + H₂O + N₂.

b) NH₃ + Cl₂ --> HCl + NCl₃.

c) Mg₃N₂ + H₂O --> Mg(OH)₂ + NH₃.

d) Pb₃O₄ + HCl --> PbCl₂ + H₂O + Cl₂.

e) Manganese [IV] + Hydrochloric acid --> Manganese (II) Chloride+ Water + Chlorine.

f) Potassium hydroxide + Chlorine --> Potassium chloride + Potassium hypochlorite + Water.

g) Ammonium dichromate --> Chromiumoxide + Water+ Nitrogen.

h) Potassium sulphite + Nitric acid --> Potassium nitrate+ Water+ Sulphur dioxide.

i) Iron [II] chloride + Water + Sulphur dioxide --> Iron [II] Chloride+ Sulphuric acid+ Hydrochloric acid.

j) Copper+ Sulphuric acid --> Copper sulphate + Water+ Sulphur dioxide.

k) Iron [III] oxide + Carbon monoxide --> Iron + Carbon dioxide.

l) Sodium sulphite+ Sulphuric acid --> Sodium sulphate+ Water+ Sulphur dioxide.

m) Zinc + Sodium hydroxide --> Sodium zincate --> Hydrogen.

n) Aluminium+ Carbon dioxide --> Aluminium oxide + Carbon.

o) Sodium bicarbonate+ Aluminium sulphate --> Sodium sulphate+ Aluminium hydroxide+ Carbon dioxide.

p) Calcium hydroxide+ Ammonium sulphate --> Calcium sulphate+ Water+ Ammonia.

q) Nitric acid+ Magnesium carbonate --> Magnesium nitrate+ Water+ Carbon dioxide.

r) Iron [III] oxide+ Sulphuric acid --> Iron [III] sulphate+ Water.

s) Zinc sulphide+ Oxygen --> Zinc oxide+ Sulphur dioxide.

t) Carbon+ Nitric acid --> Carbon dioxide+ Water+ Nitrogen dioxide.

7) Match the different types of chemical reactions in column II with the meaning of the type of reactions in column I.

COLUMN I 

a) A chemical reaction in which two or more elements or compounds react to form one new compound as a product.

b) A chemical reaction in which a chemical compound decomposes or splits up into two or more simpler substances. It is generally brought about by heat.

c) A chemical reaction which takes place when an element [or radical] has replaced another element in a compound.

d) A chemical reaction in which two reactants are both the decomposed to form new substances by exchanging their radicals.

e) A chemical reaction which employes a catalyst to alter the rate of a reaction.

f) A chemical reaction in which the products formed react together to form the original reactants depending on the conditions of the reaction.

g) A reaction in which a substance dissociates into two or more simpler substances on application of heat and is a reversible reaction.

h) A reaction which involves addition of oxygen or electronegative element or removal of hydrogen or electropositive element.

i) A reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or electropositive elements or removal of oxygen or electronegative element.

j) A chemical reaction which proceeds with evolution of heat energy.

k) A chemical reaction which proceeds with absorption of heat energy.

l) A chemical reaction which proceeds with absorption of light energy.

COLUMN II 

A) Double decomposition 

B) Exothermic reaction 

C) Reversible reaction

D) Displacement reaction

E) Combination or synthesis 

F) Decomposition reaction

G) Thermal dissociation 

H) Endothermic reaction 

I) Catalytic reaction 

J) Oxidation reaction

K)  Photochemical reaction

L) Reduction reaction.

8) With reference to the reaction -- A to L in column II of the previous question no. 7 state the type of reaction/s to which each of the following belongs :

a) Addition of zinc to copper sulphate solution.

b) Heat on lead nitrate crystals.

c) Preparation of oxygen from potassium chlorate.

d) Conversion of ferrous chloride to ferric chloride using chlorine.

e) Formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen.

f) Liberation of hydrogen at the cathode acidified water.

g) Manufacture of glucose by green plants.

h) Formation of nitric oxide from Nitrogen and oxygen.

i) Addition of zinc to dilute sulphuric acid.

j) NH₄Cl <=> NH₃ + HCl.

k) 2KNO₃ --∆--> 2KNO₂ + O₂.

l) 2H₂O₂ --H₃PO₄--> 2H₂O + O₂.

m) PbBr₂ --> Pb²⁺ + 2Br¹⁻ [ions].

n) 2HgO --∆--> 2Hg + O₂.

o) N₂O₄ <=∆=> 2NO₂.

p) AgNO₃ + KCl --> AgCl + KNO₃.

q) Fe + S --> FeS.

r) H₂ + Cl₂ --> 2HCl.

                  ˢᵘⁿˡᶦᵍʰᵗ

s) C + H₂O --> CO.

t) Cl₂ + 2KI --> 2KCl + I₂.

u) 3Fe + 4H₂O <==∆=> Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂.

v) 2Cu + O₂ --> 2CuO.

w) Fe₂O₃ + 2Al --> Al₂O₃ + 2Fe.

x) KNO₃ + H₂SO₄ --> HNO₃ + KHSO₄.

y) 2FeCl₂ + Cl₂ --> 2FeCl₃.

z) Fe+ H₂SO₄ --> FeSO₄ + H₂.

a) SO₂ + Cl₂ --> SO₂Cl₂.

b) 3Ca + N₂ --> Ca₃N₂.

c) CuSO₄ + Fe --> FeSO₄ + Cu.

d) 4HNO₃ --> 2H₂O + 4NO₂ + O₂.

8) Oxidation and reduction reactions are generally termed as redox reactions . In the examples given below underline the oxidised product or reduced product in the respective reactions. Underline substance is the oxidising or reducing agent respectively.

Oxidation reactions 

a) Cu + O₂ --> 2CuO.

b) H₂S + Cl₂ --> S + 2HCl.

c) 2FeCl₂ Cl₂ --> 2FeCl₃.

d) SO₂ + H₂O + Cl₂ --> H₂SO₄ + 2HCl.

e) H₂S + 2FeCl₃ ---> 2FeCl₂ + 2HCl + S.

f) Zn + H₂SO₄ --> ZnSO₄ + H₂.

g) Fe + S --> FeS.

h) 2Mg + SO₂ --> MgO + S.

i) 2H₂S + SO₂ --> 3S + 2H₂O.

j) S + 2H₂SO₄ ---> 3SO₂ + 2H₂O.

Reduction reactions 

a) CuO + H₂ --> Cu + H₂O.

b) Br₂ + H₂S --> 2HBr + S.

c) 2FeCl₃ + H₂S --> 2FeCl₂ + 2HCl + S.

d) 2HgCl₂ + SnCl₂ --> Hg₂Cl₂ + SnCl₄.

e) 2FeCl₃ + SO₂ + 3H₂O --> 2FeCl₂ + 2HCl + H₂SO₄.

f) Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 2H₂O + SO₂ --> 2FeSO₄ + 2H₂SO₄.

g) Cl₂ + 2H₂O + SO₂ --> 2HCl + H₂SO₄.

h) 2HNO₃ + SO₂ --> 2NO₂ + H₂SO₄.

i) 2KMnO₄ + 2H₂O + 5SO₂ --> 2MnSO₄ + K₂SO₄ + 2H₂SO₄.

j) K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄ + 3SO₂ --> Cr₂(SO₄)₃+ K₂SO₄ + H₂O.

9) Name the following:

a) A coloured gaseous oxidising agent.

b) A liquid oxidising agent which on thermal decomposition in presence of a catalyst liberates oxygen.

c) A gaseous reducing agent containing Oxygen.

d) An acidic other than nitric and Sulphuric Acid which is an oxidizing agent.

e) A gaseous reducing agent neutral in nature other than carbon monoxide.

f) An oxidizing agent which liberates chlorine on heating with concentric hydrochloric acid.

g) Two neutral gases which react to give a basic gas and the reaction is exothermic.

h) Two neutral gases which react to give a neutral oxide and the reaction is exothermic.

i) A substance which decomposes by absorption of sound energy.

j) Two substances which react explosively on close physical contact.

ATOMIC STRUCTURE 

1) Define the terms 

a) Atomic number 

b) Mass number 

c) Electron

2) From the symbol ⁴₂He for the elements helium, write down the mass number and the atomic number of the element.

3) a) Sulphur as an atomic number of 16 and a mass number of 31. State the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of sulphur.

b) Give a simple diagram to show the electrons in an atom of sulphur.

4) ²⁴₁₂Mg and ²⁶₁₂ Mg are symbols of two isotopes and magnesium. compare the atoms of these isotopes with respect to:

a) the composition of their nuclei.

b) their electronic configurations .

c) give the reason why the two isotopes of magnesium have different mass numbers.

5) Chlorine is an element of atomic number 17. It is a mixture of two Isotopes having mass number of 35 and 37.

a) What is meant by "atomic number of an element"? What do you understand by an 'atom'.

b) Write down the electronic configuration the chlorine atom.

c) State the number of protons , electrons and a neutrons in the following isotopes: ³⁷Cl₁₇, ³⁷Cl₁₇.

d) Explain why the two atoms in (c) above have the same chemical reactions.

e) If molten magnesium chloride is electrolysed suggest suitable electrode(anode).      Carbon 

6) Five atoms are labelled V to Z

Atoms    mass number.  Atomic number 

 V               40                    20

 W              19                     9

 X                 7                     3

 Y               16                     8

 Z               14                     7

i) Which one of these atoms (a) contains 7 protons (b) has an electronic configuration 2.7 ?            Z, W

ii) Write down the formula of the compound formed by atoms X and Y.      X₂Y

7) Element X, Y, Z have atomic numbers 6, 9 and 12 respectively, Which one:

a) forms anions - negative ion.

b) forms cation - positive ion.

c) has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit.

8) The atoms of aluminium is represented by ²⁷Al₁₃. Write down the number of

a( electrons

b) protons

c( neutrons

d) the arrangement of electrons in the different orbits or shells in one atom of aluminium.

9) Name the element which does not contain any neutrons in its nucleus.

10) Elements A, B, C have atomic number 9, 20 and 10 respectively.

a) State which one is (i) a nonmetal (b) a metal  (c) a chemically insert

b) Write down the formula of the compound formed by two of the above elements.

11) Write down the electronic configuration of the following: 

a) ²⁷₁₃X

b) ³⁵₁₇Y.

Write down the number of electrons in X and neutrons in Y and the formula of the compound formed by X and Y.         XY₃

12) Write down:

a) The mass number of the atom having 20 neutrons and 15 protons.

b) The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom having atomic number 17 and mass number 37.

13) What is the relation between the number of protons and the number of electrons in an atom.

14) Copy and complete the following table relating to the atomic structure of some elements.

Element    At. No  Mass.no  pro  neu  elect 

Beryllium      4.        9                     

Fluorine        9                                10

Sodium                                           12      11

Phosphate.             31            15 

15) The electronic structure (configuration) of fluorine can be written as 2,7. In a similar way give the electronic configuration of:

a) aluminium

b) phosphorus

16) Represent each of the following:

a) a proton 'p'.

b) an electron 'e'.

c) a neutron  'n' in terms of its symbols showing the subscript and superscript values.

17) An element 'A' has mass number 23 and atomic number 11. State the 

a) number of neutrons in its shell.

b) electronic configuration of the element 'A'.

18) The following elements U and Z are given :

₃U, ₆V, ₉W, ₁₄X, ₁₈Y, ₂₀Z.

State the electronic configuration of each and state whether they are metals, non metals or insert gases.

19) Draw the geometrical atomic structure of each of the following atoms showing the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in each of them:

a) ¹²₆C 

b) ²³₁₁Na

c) ³¹₁₅P

d) ³⁹₁₉K

e) ⁴⁰₂₀Ca

20) Four elements A, B, C, D are given :

A shows the presence of 20 neutrons and 17 electrons.

B shows the presence of 18 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.

C shows the presence of 10 neutrons, 9 protons and 10 electrons.

D shows the presence of 4 neutrons , 3 protons and 1 electrons.

 State which of the above is-

a) an atom

b) a cation 

c) a pair of isotopes.

 Write the formula of the compound formed between D and C.

21) Difference between the terms -

a) stable and unstable electronic configuration

b) Duplet and octet rule 

c) Electron and proton 

d) atomic number and mass number 

e) nucleus and nucleons 

f) Valence shell and penultimate shell

22) Select the correct answer from the answers in brackets to complete each sentence.

a)  An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 and 12 neutrons. Its mass number is ____( 11/23 /12).

b) The maximum number of electrons in M shell is _____(8/32/18).

c) Isotopes have same____( number of neutrons/ electronic configuration/ atomic masses).

d) An___( atom/ion) is capable of independence existence in solution.

e) An atom with electronic configuration 2,7 and mass number 19 will have____ (8/10/12).

23) Give reasons for the following:

a) the physical properties of isotopes of the same element are not identical.

b) the mass number of an atom is slightly less than the actual atomic mass.

c) the shells surrounding the nucleus of an atom are also called 'energy levels'.

d) Helium is chemically extremely unreactive.

e) Mass number is slightly less than the actual atomic mass.

24) Name the state the following:

a) the three isotopes of hydrogen.

b) Two elements having same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutrons.

c) the valency of an element whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 3.

d) the shell closest to the nucleus of an atom.

e) An element having valency zero.

25)

State the number of neutrons in each of the atoms A to E. Also state which of the atoms A to E is a metal.

26) Match the elements A to E in list 1 with their valencies in list 2 and with their nature in list 3.

List : 1

A) Atomic number 7, mass number 14

B) Electronic configuration 2,8.

C) neutrons 14, electrons 13

D) neutrons 22, protons 18.

E) electronic configuration 2,8,1

List: 2

1) -3

2) +1

3) +3

4) +2

5) 0

List: 3

X: metal 

Y: nonmetal 

Z: noble gas

PHYSICS - X

FORCE 

1) A rigid body is pivoted at a point. A force of 30 dyne acts on it at a distance of 65cm from the pivot, Calculate the moment of force.     

2) A force of 60N produces a moment of force of 12 Nm at a point on a rigid body. Calculate the distance between point of application of force and the turning point. 

3) A couple of 12 N force acts on a rigid body such that arm of couple is 60cm. Calculate the moment of couple in SI system.  

4) Calculate the resultant moment of the given body.

In which direction will the turning effect be ?      

5) A metre scale is balanced at its midpoint by suspending two weights A and B of magnitude 50gf and 25 gf as shown in the figure.

Find the mark on the scale from where the weight B is suspended. 

6) A uniform metre scale is balanced on a wedge placed under its 40cm mark at point O. At points A and B, weights of magnitude 60 gf and 20 gf, respectively, are suspended.

The scale is balanced by suspending a weight W at the point C. Calculate the value of W.    

7) The handle of a spanner is 25cm long and can tighten a nut if a force of 200 N is applied. if the magnitude of the force applied is 120 N, what is the length of the handle required to tighten the nut ?     

8) A uniform metre scale is pivoted at its midpoint. A weight of 20 gf is suspended from one of its end of the scale. Where should a weight of 50 gf be suspended to keep the scale horizontal ?    

9) The figure below

shows a balanced see-saw that is 4 m long and pivoted at the centre. A force of 40 N is applied at the end of the see-saw and another force F is applied at a distance of 1.6m from the opposite end on the other side of the privot.  Calculate the force F.    

10) A uniform metre scale of weight 50 gf is balanced at 60cm mark when a weight of 15 gf is suspended at its 10cm mark. Where must a weight of 100 gf be suspended to balance the matter scale.     

Fill in the blanks 

1. Centrifugal force is an____ force.   

2. Moment of force is also termed as___.      

3. Pseudo force is also called as____.      

4. The algebraic sum give the ____ sum acting on the body.  

5. Force to the right of fulcrum acting downwards produces a ___moment.    

6. Weight of a body act at____of the body.    

7. ____ movements are considered as positive.    

8. Centre of gravity is a___ point.        

9. Pair of force is acting on a door is called ____.      

10. Torque is the____ effect of force exerted on a beam that is pivoted at a point.     

11. Principle of moments is applicable only when the body is in____.   

12. In case of___ handles are placed at the extreme to have greater moment of force.   

FORCE 

1) Moment of force is _____proportional to the distance of the point of application of force and fulcrum.

a) inversely  b) directly c) not  d) none of these 

2) Lesser the force applied____ is the moment of force.

a) greater b) lesser  c) equal  d) none of these 

3) Clockwise moments are considered to be ____

a) positive  b) negative c) zero d) all of these 

4) _____moments are considered to be positive.

a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) total d) none of these 

5) For equilibrium ___sum of all moments is equal____ some of all anti clockwise moments.

a) arithmetic, arithmetic 

b) algebraic, algebraic 

c) total, none of

d) all of these 

6) The weight of an object lies at the____

a) centre of mass 

b) Centre of buoyancy 

c) centre of gravity 

d) geometric centre always

7) The CG of a regular object would lie____

a) on the body 

b) outside the body

c) inside the body

d) all of these

8) the CG of a regular object will depend on ____

a) distribution of mass 

b) volume of the body

c) density of the body 

d) all of these 

9) Longer the size of the key___ it is open a safe vault.

a) easier 

b) convenient

c) lesser the force required by

d) none of above 

10) Huge trailer trucks have their steering wheel of ____diameter

a) large b) small c) least  d) all of these 

11) Can a couple pair of forces keep the body in equilibrium ?

a) yes b) no c) data insufficient d) none of these 

12) Centre of gravity is____ when it is hollow cone.

a) raised from the base 

b) lower towards the base

c) centre the vertical axis 

d) none of these 

13) C. G of a solid and hollow sphere are____

a) the same  b) different  c) almost the same d) geometric centre

14) Uniform circular motion has _____.

a) constant speed and variable velocity 

b) variable speed and constant velocity 

c) circular motion with uniform speed 

d) none of these 

15) Uniform linear motion has____

a) constant speed, variable velocity

b) constant speed, constant velocity 

c) variable speed, constant velocity

d) variable speed, variable velocity

16) When a body moves in a circular path, inward seeking force is called___

a) centrifugal force

b) Tension force 

c) Tangential force 

d) Centripetal force 

17) When a body moves in a circular path, outward force is called a___

a) Pseudo force 

b) Centrifugal force 

c) cpCentripetal force 

d) Reaction force

18) For a body to perform uniform circular motion,____

a) centrifugal force is equal to the centripetal force 

b) centrifugal force is less than the cenripetal force 

c) Centripetal force is less than centrifugal force 

d) centripetal and centrifugal force canal each other 

19) Find the maximum force required to open a nut by a spanner of length 50cm producing a torque of 50Nm ?

a) 10N b) 100N c) 0.1 N d) none of these 

20) 100 dyne cm is equals to ____Nm.

a) 10⁵ b) 10⁻⁵ c) 0 d) 0.001

21) 10⁻¹⁰ Nm is equal to___ dyne cm.

a) 10⁻⁴ b) 10 c) 0.001 d) none of these 

22) Find the weight of half metre scale balance at 5 cm mark when a weight of 10 gf is suspended at one of its ends.

a) 2.5gf b) 100 gf c) 0.2 gf d) 50 gf

23) Find the resultant movement of couple if two equal forces each of 6N are acting at a distance of 3cm each from the centre.

a) 36Nm b) 360 Nm c) 3.6 Nm d) 0.36 Nm

24) Centripetal force is ____while Centrifugal force is____

a) real ,real

b) real, virtual

c) virtual, real 

d) virtual, virtual 

MORE NUMERICAL PROBLEM 

1) A force of 5N is applied at a perpendicular distance of 0.2m from a pivoted point. Calculate the moment of force.          

2) The moment of force of 8N about a fixed point is 4Nm. Calculate the distance of the point from the line of action of force.   

3) A nut can be opened by a wrench of lengths 50cm with a force of 120N. If a smaller force of 75N is applied, what will be the required length of the handle of the wrench?   

4) In the figure, a bicycle wheel of circumference 8m is shown. A force of 4N is applied at the point P in the direction shown. Calculate the moment of force at

a) point O.     

b) point Q.     

5) Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a uniform bar AB of length 6m, which is pivoted in the centre of shown in the figure. Determine the magnitude of moment of force. 

a) at the end A.       

b) at the end of B.      

c) total amount moment of couple.   

6) Two forces F₁=5N and F₂ = 8N are acting at points P and Q of a rod pivoted at a point O such that OP= 8m and OQ= 2m.

Calculate the

a) moment of force F₁ at point O,       

b) moment of force F₂ at point O.     

c) total moment of the two forces at point O.     

7) A uniform meter scale is balanced at 60cm mark, when weights of 5gf and 40gf are suspended from 10cm mark and 80cm mark, respectively. Calculate the weight of the meter scale.       

8) A uniform metre scale weighing 100gf is pivot at a point O, a 25cm mark. A 80gf weight is hung from 10cm mark and a 30gf weight is hung from 70cm mark as shown in the figure.

Calculate 

a) the total anticlockwise moment about point O.    

b) The total clockwise moment about point O.    

c) the net resultant moment.   

9) A uniform metre scale of mass 50g is balanced on the edge of a knife at mark 60cm by suspending an unknown mass at the 80cm mark. Find the value of the unknown mass.        

10) A see-saw of 8m long is balanced in the middle. Two children of mass 30kgf and 40 kgf are sitting on the same side of the fulcrum at a distance of 1.5m and 3.5m respectively, from the fulcrum. At what distance must an adult person of weight 60 kgf sit from the fulcrum so as to balance the see-saw?     

11) A uniform metre scale of weight 20gf is pivoted at its zero mark. Calculate 

a) the moment of force that depress the scale .    

b) what would be the magnitude of least force applied on it to make it horizontal? 

12) A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70cm mark when a mass of 0.05kg is hung from the 94cm mark 

a) Draw the diagram of the arrangement

b)  Find the mass of the metre scale.   

13) A red bull tin is to be opened by means of a screwdriver as shown in the figure. Find the minimum effort required to flick open the lid ?      

WORK, POWER AND ENERGY 

1) A Work of 600 J is done when a force of 30 N is applied on the pedals of a bicycle. What is the distance through which the bicycle moves ?     20m

2) An elevator rises up to a height of 30m carrying passengers with a total mass of 600 kg.  Calculate the work done by the elevator.       -176400 J

3) A lawn mower is pulled with a force of 500 N directed at an angle of 60° with the ground. Calculate the work done by the mower when it is pulled to a distance of 50m.   12500 J

4) A force of 10N acting on a body at an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction displaces the body through a distance of 2 m along the surface of a floor. Calculate the work done. Now, let another force acting on the body making an angle of 30° with the horizontal do the same amount of work. What is the value of this force to displace the body through the same distance along the surface of the floor ? ( take cos60°= 1/2, cos30°= √3/2).        5, 5.77 N

5)  A man with a mass of 70kg runs up a flight of 40 stairs, each 15cm high in 30s. Find the power of the man. (g= 10 m/s²).       140 W

6) A rickshaw puller pulls the rickshaw by applying a force of 100 N. if the rickshaw moves with a constant velocity of 36 kmph, find the power of the rickshaw puller.    1000 W

7) The heart does a work 1.2 J in each heartbeat. How many times per minute does it beat if its power is 1.5 W ?       75

8) A horse exerts a force of 200 N to pull the cart. If the horse cart system moves with a velocity of 36 kmph on the level road, then find the power of horse in terms of horsepower (1 H. P= 750 W).      2.67 H. P

9) Calculate the horsepower of an engine that lifts 10 litres of water from a depth of 50m in 30 min. (Taking g= 10 m/s², density of water= 1000 kg/m³, 1 H. P= 750 W).            3693.33 H. P

10) An electric bulb of 100 W is used for 3 hours per day . Calculate the amount of energy consumed in 5 days.    5.4 x 10⁶ J

VARIOUS FORMS OF ENERGY AND CONSERVATION OF ENERGY 

1) Determine the kinetic energy of a roller coaster car with a mass 500 kg and moving with a velocity of 15 m/s.     5.625 x 10⁴ J

2) Energy of 6000 J spent in raising a suitcase of mass 50kg to a vertical height. Calculate the vertical height (take g= 10 m/s²).     12m

3) a body of mass 10 kg is taken from a height of 10m to 20 m. Calculate the increase in its potential energy. (Take g= 10 m/s²).     1000 J

4) A body of mass 2 kg falls from a height of 10m. Calculate the energy possessed by it at any instant of time. (Take g= 10 m/s²).     200 J

5) A body of mass 5 kg is initially at rest. A force of 20 N is applied on it. Calculate the kinetic energy of the body after 10s.      4000 J

6) A rock is dropped from a height of 40m. Determine the velocity with which it strikes the ground. (Take g= 10 m/s²).     28.28 m/s

7) Calculate the work required to be done to slow down a bus with a mass of 2000 kg moving at a velocity of 60 kmph to 36 kmph.     1.78 x 10⁵ J

8) A train weighing 5000 N has a kinetic energy of 10 kJ. Find the velocity of the train. (Take g= 10 m/s²).      6.32 m/s

9) How will the kinetic energy of a car change if

a) its mass is trippled.       Tripled

b) its velocity is doubled.     Four times 

c) its mass is doubled and velocity is halved?     Halved 

10) What will be the ratio r kinetic energy of two buses with equal mass moving with different velocities if velocity of bus A is 10 m/s and velocity of bus B is 12.25 m/s ?    2:3

11) A body mass 0.5 kg has a momentum of 30 kg m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the body.     900 J

12) An object of mass 10 kg is raised to a height of 20m above the ground level. What is its potential energy ? if the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is at a height of 5m above the ground. (Take g= 10 m/s).     200 J, 1500 J

13) A bullet of mass 3g travels with a speed of 600 M/s. It penetrates a wall that offers resistive force of 600 N to the motion of the bullet find 

a) the initial kinetic energy of the bullet.      540 J

b) the distance through which the bullet has penetrating before coming to rest.    0.9m

c) the speed with which the bullet emergence out of the wall if its thickness is 0.7m.   282.8 m/s

14) A body of mass 2kg is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 50 m/s. Calculate 

a) the initial kinetic energy impartu to the body.      2500 J

b) the maximum height if friction due to air is neglected.     125m

c) the maximum height reached if 25% of the initial energy is lost against air friction.   93.75 m

15) An oscillating simple pendulum rises to a maximum vertical height of 6 m at its extreme positions . if the mass of the bulb 300g, find 

a) the velocity of the bob at its resting position.      1.09 m/s

b) the total energy of the pendulum at any instant while oscillation (take g= 10 m/s²). Neglect the friction due to air.         0.18 J

WORK, POWER AND ENERGY 

1) Work done= force x _____

a) distance b) time c) velocity d) displacement 

2) SI unit of work is ____

a) newton b) Joule c) erg d) dyne

3) 1 dyne cm =_____

a) 1 erg b) 1 newton cm c) 10 newton cm d) none of these 

4) Work done is a____ quantity.

a) pure b) scalar c) vector d) dimensionless 

5) Work done is positive when _____

a) distance is positive 

b) maximum distance travelled along direction of force applied.

c) displacement is in direction of force applied 

d) distance is negative 

6) Work done by buoyant force is ____

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) cannot definitely say

7) A parrot flying at a height of 300m above sea level applying a force of 10N___

a) does not work 

b) does work equal to 3000 J

c) does negative work 

d) none of these 

8) A sprinter running in a 200m x 4 medley relay circular track does not do any work. Is this statement always true ?

a) yes b) no c) incomplete data d) none of these 

9) 8J= ____ kWh.

a) 3.6 x 10⁶

b) 0.278 x 10⁻⁶

c) 3.6 x 10⁻⁶ 

d) none of these 

10) Power = ___

a) work x time

b) time x work 

c) time/work 

d) work/time 

11) SI unit of power is _____

a) watt hour 

b) kilowatt 

c) watt

d) joule hour 

12) 1000 watt = ____

a) 10⁶ b) 10⁹ c) 10⁻¹² d) 10⁻³

13) 1 kW= ____

a) 1000W 

b) 100J/100 sec 

c) 1000 J/1000 sec

d) 10⁻³ W

14) Force= Power x ____

a) velocity b) (velocity)² c) 1/Velocity d) √velocity

15) Gravitational potential energy= ___

a) mgh b) mv²/2 c) 2mgh d) none of these 

16) kinetic energy of body is independent of ___

a) force applied 

b) time for which force is applied

c) elasticity of the body

d) none of these 

17) When a body travels in a circular path and covers a distance equals to 1/4th of its circumference can we conclude that work done is zero?

a) yes b) no c) both a and b d) none of these 

18) When a body travels a circular path such that its displacement is maximum equal to the diameter of the circle can we conclude work done is zero.

a) yes b) no c) data insufficient d) none of these 

19) Power rating of a pump=

a) power work output x power input 

b) power input/ power output 

c) power output/time 

d) power output/power input 

20) Power rating of a rotary pump is____

a) mv²/2 b) work input x time 

c) work input x time 

d) work output/work input 

21) Energy is____

a) the capacity to use Power 

b) capacity to produce power 

c) capacit to do work 

d) capacity to do work per unit time 

22) The two basic forms of mechanical energy are:

a) PE and KE

b) sound and light 

c) heat and tidle

d) solar and wind

23) In an oscillating pendulum, KE is____ at extremes.

a) zero 

b) negative 

c) positive

d) none of these 

24) In an oscillating pendulum the ____energy is maximum at extremes .

a) potential 

b) vibration 

c) Gravitational potential 

d) Kinetic 

25) For a freely falling body the potential energy at the top____.

a) is zero

b) is completely converted to KE

c) is equals to gravitational potential energy 

d) is minimum 

26) During freefall the total energy are 3/4th the height is ____

a) constant b) zero 

c) gravitational potential energy at the top

d) 3/4th the initial potential energy

27) In a washing machine the electrical energy is converted into____

a) sound energy 

b) vibration energy

c) kinetic energy 

d) mechanical Kinetic rotational energy 

28) In the case of a catapult____energy gets converted into kinetic energy.

a) muscular 

b) stretchable 

c) elastic potential 

d) elastic 

29) In a photovoltaic cell _____energy converts to _____energy.

a) heat, chemical

b) light, electrical 

c) light, wind 

d) thermal, kinetic 

30) Charging of a lead accumulator____energy gets converted into chemical energy.

a) sound b) light c) heat d) electrical 

31) If 1kWh is ____ MJ then 8 MJ is_____ kWh.

a) 36,72 b) 3.6,2.22 c) 0.36,222 d) none of these 

32) 500 litres of water is _____kg.

a) 5kg b) 50kg c) 500 kg d) none of these 

33) For a given mass of a body if velocity is doubled the kinetic energy is ____

a) halved b) 4 times c) 1/4th d) none of these 

34) For a given mass and velocity the kinetic energy remains constant if____

a) mass is four times and velocity is half.

b) mass is half and velocity is doubled 

c) mass and velocity both are squared

d) none of these 

35) If a body mass 5 kg is lifted from the ground level to a height of 5m then the ratio of its inertia is

a) 1:1 b) same c) constant d) not defined 

36) During energy transformation some form of energy is given out without it being used anywhere, such energy is called_____

a) back up energy 

b) stored energy 

c) wasteful energy 

d) dissipated form of energy 

37) When a substance melt____

a) no energy change takes place.

b) energy change takes place but is totally dissipated

c) PE changes into KE d) none the above 

38) When camphor sublimes ____

a) chemical energy changes into heat energy 

b) PE gets converted into KE

c) it simply converts into a gaseous state without attaining the liquid state

d) entire energy is lost to the surroundings 

39) a person drives a Lamborghini and reaches Delhi while another person travels the same on a bullock cart. Is the work done is the same ?

a) yes b) no c) data insufficient d) work done is zero 

40) A boy using a lift to reach 26 floors and a girl climbing the stairs to reach the 26th floor does the same work. Comment whether true or false ?

a) yes

b) data in complete 

c) no

d) boy spend more energy than girl.

FILL IN BLANKS

1) The capacity do work is work is____. 

2) Work done is zero when___ displacement is zero. 

3) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed is the____ of energy. 

4) Energy by virtue of its state of rest is called___. 

5) Energy by virtue of its emotion is called____. 

6) SI unit of power is_____.

7) The work done is ____. When angle between force and displacement is 90°. 

8) Rate of doing work per unit time is____. 

9) Power is forcex ___.  

10) Work done is____. When displacement is against the direction of applied force. 

SCIENCE - X

23/9/25

1) The diagram below is of a human brain. Study the diagram and answer the following questions:

a) What is the unit of brain?

b) What happens if part 3 is damaged?

c) Write the functions of the parts marked as 3 and 1.
d) Name the covering of the brain.

2) The diagram given below shows the internal structure of the spinal cord, depicting a simple reflex. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the parts numbered 1 to 5.

b) Using the letters of the alphabet shown in the figure, indicate the direction in which an impulse enters and leaves the spinal cord.

c) What is the term given to the point of contact between two nerve cells.

d) What is meant by 'sumple reflex '? Give two examples of simple reflexs and name the stimulii too.

e) How does the arrangement of nerve cells in the spinal cord differ from that in the brain?

3) The figure given below shows the organs involved in a reflex arc:

a) Name the structure labelled A - J

b) Name the canal of the vertebral column in which spinal cord is located.

c) What is the path of a reflex arc?

d) Name the two types of reflex actions.

e) Give one example of reflex action.

4) The diagram given below represents a defect of vision of the human eye:

a) Name the defect.

b) What is the effect of this defect on man ?

c) Mention two causes for this defect.

d) How can this defect be rectified?

e) Draw a neat labelled diagram to show how this defect can be rectified.

f) What is the nature of the image that falls on the retina of a normal eye?

5) The diagram given below represents the cross-section of the human eye:

a) Name the parts labelled 1 to 12.

b) What is the function of the part marked 10?

c) What would happen if part 5 is damaged or cut ?

6) Name the following :

a) A pollutant which reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of blood.

b) The male reproductive cells of mammals.

c) The element required for clotting blood in man.

d) The tube that leads from the ovary to the uterus.

e) Opening found on the undersurface of dorsoventral leaves.

f) Tissue concerned with upward conduction of water in plants. 

g) Condition of cell in which the cell contents are shrunken.

 

7) Complete the following sentence given below filling in the appropriate word or terms from the list given below:

[Osmosis, Ciliary muscles, Aorta, Stapes, Alveoli, WHO, Malleus, Diffusion, Dorsal Aorta, Bronchioles, Iris, Red cross]

a) The part of the responsible for change in the size of the pupil is the___.

b) The process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly within space they occupy is termed____.

c) The blood vessel leaving the left ventricle of the mammalian heart is the ___.

8) Mention if the following statements are true or false:

Rewrite the wrong statements from 1 to 6 above the correct from by changing only the first or the last word.

a) Pregnancy in women can be prevented by the method of vasectamy .

b) Cones are the receptor cells in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.

c) The unit of light absorbed by the chlorophyll during photosynthesis is proton.

9)  The diagram below represents certain organs in the abdominal region of man:

a) label the parts numbered 1 to 7.

b) Name the organ systems shown in the diagram.

c) Name three parts, other than those marked, which are clearly seen in the diagram.

10) Given below is the diagram of a bean root:

a) what term is given to the part marked 'X'?

b) What does it contain ?

c) What significant role is played by the structure named in Q (b) above in the soil ? Briefly discuss how the structure plays this role.

d) What happens to the above mentioned structure when the plant dies ?

11) Give One point of difference between any three of the following pairs, on the basis of what is indicated in the brackets :

a) Sensory and Motor neuron (Function)

b) Blood and Lymph ( composition)

c) Dicot and Monocot stem (Arrangement of the vascular bundles)

d) Uretor and urethra (Function)

12) Give the overall equation to represent process of photosynthesis.

13) Write briefly as indicated in the brackets, on the following:

a) Myopia (Symptom and cause)

b) Red blood corpuscle (Irigin and function)

NUMERICAL PROBLEMS

1) The voltage across 3 Ω resistance is 6V. How large is the current ?     2A

2) What is the resistance of a filament lamp when a voltage of 3V across it causes a current of 0.5A ?        6Ω

3) Four resistors of resistance 0.5 Ω, 1.5 Ω, 4Ω and 6 Ω are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f. 6V and negligible internal resistance. Calculate 

a) the current drawn from cell.     0.5A

b) p.d. at the end of each resistor.      0.25V, 0.75V, 2V, 3V

4) Five resistors each of 3 Ω, are connected as shown in figure.

Calculate the resistance:

a) between the points P and Q.     2Ω

b) between the points X and Y .      8Ω

5) Study the circuit diagram carefully and calculate:

a) the current in main circuit.     1.80A

b) the current in each of the resistors in parallel circuit.       1.2A, 0.6A, 1.2A, 0.6A

6) Figure shows a circuit diagram containing 12 cells,

each of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.25 Ω. Calculate 

a) total internal resistance.     3Ω

b) total emf.        18V

c) total external resistance.      9Ω

d) reading shown by ammeter.      1.5A

e) current in 12Ω and 8Ω resistors.         0.75A

f) p.d. across 2.2Ω resistors .           3.30V

g) drop in potential across the terminals of battery.       4.5V

7) For the combination of resistors as shown in the circuit,

find the equivalent resistance between 

a) A and B.   2.25Ω

b) C and D.        8.25Ω

8)  Four resistances are connected as shown in figure. ar potential difference is applied between the points P and S.

a) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points Q and the R.   1.2Ω

b) What is the equivalent resistance between the points P and S ?    6.2Ω

c) If the current flowing through the 3Ω resistance is 2A, what is the current through the 2Ω resistance ?     3A

d) What is the current through 4Ω resistance.       5A

e) What is the current through the 1Ω resistance ?     5A

f) What is the potential difference between P and S?    31 volts 

9) Figure shows a circuit diagram having a battery of 24V and negligible internal resistance. 

Calculate 

a) reading ammeter.     2A

b) reading of V₁ , V₂, V₃.    3V, 4V, 17V

10) Carefully study the circuit diagram shown below

and calculate the value of resistors x.  11Ω

11) A cell of EMF 1.8V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected in a series with an ammeter of resistance 0.7Ω and a resistor of 4.5Ω as shown in figure 

a) What would be the reading of ammeter ?    0.25A

b) What is the potential difference across the terminals of the cell ?     1.3V

12)  A battery of emf 3V is connected in series with an ammeter, a 10 Ω coil of wire and with a parallel combination of resistances of 3 Ω and 6 Ω. Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement. What is the :

a) resistance of the parallel combination ?    2Ω

b) reading on the ammeter?        0.25A

c) potential difference across the 3Ω resistors ?     0.5V

d) current flowing through 3Ω resistors ?    0.17A

13) A cell supplies a current 0.6A through a 2Ω coil and a current of 0.3A through a 8Ω coil . Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the cell.     3.6V, 4Ω

14) Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points X and Y

in the network shown below:         1Ω

15) In the given figure

A, B and C are three ammeter. The ammeter B reads 0.5A. (All the ammeters have negligible resistance). Calculate 

a) the reading in ammeter A and C.    1.5A

b) the total resistance of the circuit.    4Ω

16) Calculate the resistance between point X and Y in the network shown below.   0.71Ω

17) Figure shows

a battery having an emf of 9 V and internal resistance of 0.6Ω, connected to three resistors A, B and C, Calculate the correct in each resistor.    1.08A, 0.72A

18) Calculate the equivalent resistance in the following combination of resistors r₁, r₂, r₃, r₄. 

       R= {(r₁+ r₂)r₃ + (r₁+ r₂+ r₃)r₄/(r₃ + r₄)

19) Four cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω are connected in series. The combination is connected in series to an ammeter of negligible resistance, a 1.6 Ω resistor and unknown resistor R₁. The currenr in the circuit is 2A.

Draw a labelled circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate the total resistance in a circuit diagram for the above arrangement and calculate:

a) the total resistance in the circuit.    (2+ R₁)Ω

b) the total emf.     8 volts 

c) the value of R₁.          4Ω

d) the potential difference across R₁.      4V

20)  Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 2 Ω in parallel are connected to a cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 0.3 Ω. Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement and calculate the current drawn from the cell.      1.0A

21) Given below is the circuit diagram

in which three resistance of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected to a cell of EMF 2V and internal resistane 0.5Ω.

a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit .     2.0Ω

b) What is the reading of the ammeter ?        1A

c) What will be the ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in series with the given cell ?       1.33A

22) The following circuit diagram shows

three resistor 2Ω, 4Ω and R Ω connected to a battery of EMF of 2V and internal resistance 3 Ω. A main current of 0.25A flows through the circuit.

a) What is the potential difference across the 4Ω resistors.       1V

b) Calculate the potential difference across the internal resistance of the cell.     0.75V

c) What is the potential difference across the R Ω or 2Ω resistors?    0.25V

d) Calculate the value of R.     2Ω

23) In the figure shown below,

calculate:

a) the value of combined resistances of 40 ohm and R, using the reading of the two metres.     10Ω

b) the value of R.      13.3Ω

c) the current flowing through R.     0.3A

24) A cell of EMF 1.5V and internal resistance 10 ohms is connected to a resistors of 5 ohms, with an ammeter in series( see figure).

What is the reading of the ammeter ?    0.1A

25) Four cells, each of the EMF 1.5 V and internal resistance 2.0 ohms are connected in parallel. The battery of cells is connected to an external resistance of 2.5 ohms. Calculate :

a) The total resistance of the circuit.    3Ω

b) the current flowing in the external circuit, and the reading of the ammeter.    0.5A

c) the drop in potential across the terminals of the cells .     0.25V

26) With reference to the diagram given below, 

calculate:

a) the equivalent resistance between P and Q.    2.4Ω

b) the reading of ammeter .        1.66A

27) Four resistance 2.0 Ω if each are joined end to end to form a square ABCD. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination between two adjacent corners.    1.5Ω

PHOTOSYNTHESIS 

A) Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative out of brackets)

1) Carbon dioxide is necessary for___.(respiration/photosynthesis)     

2) Splitting of water results in the release of___. (oxygen/water).     

3) Animal nutrition is____ (autotrophic) heterotrophic).      

4) Chlorophyll has___ in the middle of ring. (nitrogen/magnesium).  

5) The first step of photosynthesis is dependent upon light and is called the___ while the second step is independent of light and is called the____ (light reaction/dark reaction).    

6) ____ are regarded as complete photosynthetic units of plants.(nuclei/chloroplast).  

7) RuDP stands for__(adenosine triphosphate/ribulose diphosphate).   

8) Each granum consists of disc shaped membranous sacs called ____(chloroplast/thylakoids).   

9) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is known as___ (calvin cycle/Haber cycle).    

10) chlorophyll can be extracted from the leaves using ____. (Acetone/distilled water).    

11) a chemical which absorbs carbon dioxide is___.( sodium chloride/sodium hydroxide).   

12) all the animals would die on the earth if there was no____. (chlorophyll/sodium).   

13) light reaction takes place in the____ of chloroplast. (grana/stroma).

14) starch can be tested by____. (Iodine/ hydrochloric acid).    

B) complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternatives out of those given in the list :

(Quantasome, water, yellow, 40°C, producers, dark reaction, photosynthesis, oxygen, stroma, light reaction, chloroplasts, 2-10 mm, grana)

1) the diameter of the chloroplast is in the range of ______.    

2) During the photosynthesis____ convert the physical energy of light into chemical energy which is stored up in ATP.    

3) Quantasome is the basic unit of___.     

4) Xanthophyll is ___ coloured pigment.   

5) The larger unlike particles of thylakoid membrane are called as ____.   

6) grana of chlorophyll is concerned with_____.    

7) photosynthesis stops at a temperature above ____.     

8) The source of oxygen released in photosynthesis is_____.    

9) all food chains start with a plant because they are _____.    

10) A chloroplast consists of a colourless matrix known as___ and disc-like green structures called_____.       

11) _____ is never a limiting factor for photosynthesis.     

12) stroma chlorophyll is concerned with ______.    

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

 

1) The step of photosynthesis which can take place both in the presence and absence of light.     

2) the substance from which oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis.   

3) the first important stable product formed during carbon fixation.    

4) The organelles that bind the radiant energy in the molecules of organic compounds.   

5) the most abundant pigment found on the earth.       

6) the process by which carbohydrates and synthesized by plants from carbon dioxide and water with the help of Chlorophyll and light

 OR

the process by which the green plants prepare their food.      

7) the substance which gets removed from the leaf when a plant is kept in dark for a long period.  

8) the technical term used for the conversion of light energy into high potential chemical energy viz., ATP during photosynthesis.    

OR

 the process of conversion of ADP to ATP during the first phase of photosynthesis.

9) the colour in which the rate of photosynthesis.      

10) A solvent for chlorophyll. 

11) The colour of rays in which the rate of photosynthesis is highest next to red.     

12) the chemical reaction in which oxygen is given out.      

13) Form of energy which is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.       

14) the chemical that absorbs carbon dioxide during the dark reaction.    

15) any two plants you have seen which do not perform photosynthesis.        

16) the part of chloroplast where light reaction takes place.    

17) light-induced reaction which leads to splitting of water.    

18) a pigment in leaves which mainly absorbs red and blue light.       

19) the plastids found in the cells of yellow coloured petals.        

20) The energy currency of cell.      

21) the part of the chloroplast where the dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place.

OR

 the ground substance present in a chloroplast.     

22) the structure where photophosphorylation test place.      

D) Match the following:

COLUMN-I

1) autotrophs

2) photolysis

3) bacteria fungi 

4) stomata closed

5) by product the photosynthesis

6) the grana

7) the stroma

COLUMN-II

a) is the place for light reaction of photosynthesis.

b) is the place of dark reaction light reaction of photosynthesis.

c) light reaction.

d) during night.

e) green plants.

f) oxygen

g) decomposers

E) MATCH THE COLUMN

1) oxygen and water.

2) glucose (sugar)

3) chloroplast

4) sunlight

5) Carbon dioxide and water.

6) Cells in the leaf.

7) grana.

COLUMN-II

a) stimulated by the light.

b) machinery

c) raw materials

d) by products

e) work rooms

f) end product

g) power

F) SHORT QUESTIONS:

1) Why is chlorophyll called the wonder pigment ?

2) Mention any two points in which photosynthesis and respiration in plants are opposite to each other.

3) State three conditions required for photosynthesis.

4) What is the source of oxygen release in photosynthesis: carbon dioxide or water.

5) what is thylakoid ? 

6) what does granum consist of ?

7) Do the plants needs oxygen ? If so what is its source?

8) what is the basic role of light in photosynthesis?

9) Photosynthesis is divided into two groups light and dark reactions. In which of these two, water is split?

10) What happens to chlorophyll when plants are kept in dark ?

11) What initiates light reaction ?

12) Mention the sites of light and the dark reactions.

13) What Chemicals do you use to remove Carbon dioxide from inside a flask in certain experiment on photosynthesis ?

14) Name the two sets of reaction in photosynthesis process.

Light or photochemical reaction (Hill reaction)

15) Name the two men events of dark reaction.

16) explain why chlorophyll appear green.

17) why is not possible to demonstrate respiration, in a green plant kept in the sunlight.

18) what is photolysis of water?

19) Photosynthesis is called a light dependent process. Explain.

20) What is the immediate product of photosynthesis. 

21) Why chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis?

22) How do raw materials reach to the plant cells ?

23) chloroplasts are called energy converters. Explain.

24) What is the role of ATP in a biosystem.

25) why is ATP necessary for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

26) State four limiting factors of photosynthesis.

27) chloroplast are regarded as complete photosynthetic units of a plant. Explain?

28) what is the pathway of energy flow from sun to the organisms ?

29) What is photosynthesis ?

30) Write the main component of biosphere.

31) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to hexose sugar. From where do 

a) the energy

b) the hydrogen, for this process come ?

Energy comes from the sunlight.

 

32) Most leaves have a shiny, more green upper surface than the lower one. why ?

33) Is it true that no life could exist on earth in the absence of photosynthesis?

34) Why is necessary to place a plant in dark before starting an experiment on photosynthesis

OR

 why is it important to destarch a plant before starting any experiment on photosynthesis ?

35) What happens to light energy during photosynthesis?

36) What is the by product of photosynthesis?

37) What is the first sugar phosphate produced as a result of photosynthesis?

38) Expand the following abbreviation:

a) ATP      

b) NADP.       

c) ADP.   

d) PGA.       

e) PGAL.    

39) State one main function of palisade cells.

40) Write the odd one out and give reason for your answer:

a) glycolysis, photosynthesis, photolysis, carbon fixation

b) Oxaloacetic Acid, Pyruvic acid, citric acid, Alpha- ketoglutaric acid.

41) Explain each of the part of the term cyclic photoshoperization.

Cyclic 

Photo-

Phosphorylation

42) Explain briefly how during the day transpiration and photosynthesis are interlinked.

43) State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statements by changing the first or last word only.

a) photosynthesis occurs in all the cells of a plant.

b) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is light independent.    

44) Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word/words for the fourth place.

a) Thylakoid: chloroplast : Cristae: ?      

45) Given below is a set of 5 terms. Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be logical sequence.

 water molecule, oxygen, grana, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, photons.

46) what is photophosphorylation. 

47) Give the exact location and one function of Thylakoid.

47) State whether the following statement is true or false, write the correct statement by changing the first word only.

   Respiration is the only biological process in which oxygen is produced.

48) Explain the term photolysis.

49) Give reason: green leaves are thin and broad.

50) Given below is set of 5 terms. Without changing the first term, rearrange the remaining four, so as to be in logical sequence as per the direction given in bracket)

  Destarched Plant, iodine added, wadhed in water, a leaf boiled in alcohol, placed in sunlight. (testing for presence of starch)

51) State whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE. If false rewrite the correct form of the statement by only changing the last word of the statement.

   Plant that manufacture their own food are termed heterotrophs.

52) given below is an incomplete explanation of certain biological process/terms where a key word has been left out. Rewrite the completed explanation by inserting the key word in the space indicated by ' '.

 Photolysis is the splitting of water molecules into Hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions in the presence of ' ' and light.

53) Briefly explain the following term:

Destarched plant.

54) Define:

a) light reaction

b) dark reaction

c) Quantum

55) Given below 6 seta, with 4 terms in each. In each set, one term is odd and cannot be grouped into the category to which the other three belong. Identity the odd one in each set and name the category to which the remaining three belongs.

    Set odd one category

a) Fructose, sucrose, glucose, calcium.

b) Golgi bodies, leucoplast, nucleus, cambium.

c) chlorenchyma, cartilage, parenchyma, collenchyma.

d) goitre, dwarfism, acromegaly, cataract.

e) sneezing, coughing, typing, blinking.

f) ADH, TSH, NADP, ACTH.

56) Differentiate between:

a) photosynthesis/respiration

b) stroma/grana

c) light reaction/dark reaction

57) Multiple Choice Questions:

a) A molecule broken down during the light reaction photosynthesis :

i) oxygen ii) chlorophyll iii) water iv) carbon dioxide 

b) A molecule which is reduced during the dark stage of photosynthesis

i) water ii) carbon dioxide iii) oxygen iv) chlorophyll 

c) A light absorbing pigment:

i) oxygen ii) carbon dioxide iii) water iv) chlorophyll 

d) A gas given off by chloroplasts in sunlight:

i) oxygen ii) water iii) carbon dioxide iv) chlorophyll

e) An energy -rich molecule formed by photosynthesis:

i) oxygen ii) carbon dioxide iii) water iv) glucose 

f) The number of water molecules required in the chemical reactions to produce one molecule of glucose during photosynthesis is : 

i) eighteen ii) six iii) twelve iv) twenty-four

g) A plant is kept in a dark cupboard for about 48 hours before conducting an experiment on photosynthesis to :

i) remove chlorophyll from the leaves.

ii) remove starch from the plant.

iii) ensure that no photosynthesis occurs.

iv) ensure that the leaves are free from starch.

h) If the rate of respiration becomes more than the rate of photosynthesis, plant will:

i) continue to live, but will not be able to store food 

ii) be killed instantly.

iii) grow more vigerously because more energy will be available.

iv) stop growing and gradually die of starvation.

i) which one of these reactions occurs during photosynthesis ?

i) carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised

ii) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidized.

iii) carbon dioxide and water are both oxidised.

iv) carbon dioxide and water are both reduced.

j) all of the following are likely to decrease the rate photosynthesis except:

i) low carbon dioxide concentration.

ii) small surface area of leaves

iii) decreased intensity of light

iv) low oxygen concentration.

QUESTIONS BASED ON DIAGRAMS 

1) The diagram given below shows the inside of a leaf.

a) Name two types of cell layers which carry out photosynthesis.

b) Which type of cell will provide the most food ? Give a reason for your answer.

c) Name the part of the leaf which carries food and water.

2) A plant is destarched by keeping it in dark for 48 hours and then setup as shown in figure. The conical flask is made completely airtight by smearing the split cork with vaseline or wax. The apparatus is kept in sunlight. After 7 hour, the leaves are detached in A and B and tested for starch .

a) What happens to the leaves present in A and B ?

b) Why is KOH kept in the flask A?

c) Write the aim of the experiment.

3) Two healthy green plants were placed in the dark for 24 hours. They were then setup at shown in the figure and left for 4 hours. Then a leaf was taken from each plant and the chlorophyll was removed from the leaves.

a) How is the chlorophyll removed ?

b) What is the next in the final step in the experiment ?

c) What would be the result on the final step ?

d) Why is it necessary to grease the glass sheet ?

e) What hypothesis is being tested in this experiment ?

f) Which of the two plants would serve as the control ?

4) Introduction in an experiment read: Destarche the green potted plant. Cover a portion of leafs with steep or blood paper and keep it in sunlight for 6 hours the presence of starch in the leaf with a strip of black paper and keep in sunlight for 6 hours. Test the presence of starch in the leaf.

a) What is the aim of the experiment ?

b) How will you proceed for testing starch ?

c) What will happen if the plant is not destarched ?

5) The diagram given below shows how carbon compounds are recycled.

a) Name the process shown by the arrows B, C, D and E.

b) Name a type of organism you expect to be named in box A.

c) State one other way in which the amount of carbon dioxide can be increased .

6) Figure represents an experiment performed to demonstrate a particular aspect of photosynthesis. The apparatus was kept in sunlight for almost the whole day. The numeral 1 represents a certain condition inside the flask and the numeral 2 represents a chemical responsible for this condition.

a) What is the object of the experiment ?

b) What is the special condition inside the flask? 

c) What is the chemical substance numbered 2 ?

d) In what way will three leaves (A, B and C) differ at the end of the experiment, when tested with iodine solution?

e) Name the process which is reverse of photosynthesis in terms of the end products.

f) Write the overall chemical equation for the process named above in subsection (e).

7) A potted destarched plant was taken in order to prove that light is in necessary for photosynthesis

a) What is meant by destarched plant ? How can it be destarched ?

b) Using the destarched plant describe step how will you would proceed to prove that in the absence of light the leaf cannot manufacture starch.

8) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of the internal structure of an organelle found in a plant cell. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow ?

a) Identify the organelle.

b) Name the psychological process occurring in this organelle.

c) Mention one way in which this process is beneficial to man.

d) Name the phases of the process occurring in the part labelled 1 and 2.

e) A chemical substance in NADP plays an active part in one of the phases. Give the expanded form of NADP and state its role in the above process.

f) Represent the psychological process mentioned in (b) above in the form of a chemical equation.

9) A well-watered healthy potted plant with variegated leaves was kept in darkness for about 24 hours. It was then setup as shown in the diagram and exposed to light for about 12 hours. At the end of the time leaf X and leaf Y were tested for starch. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.

a) Why was the plant initially kept in darkness for 24 hours ?

b) What is the function of sodium hydroxide solution in the flask ?

c) Select the correct leaf from the five available choices shown in the diagram as A, B, C, D and E. Rewrite the correct answer by filling in the appropriate letter for the questions that follow:

i) After the starch test, leave X would look like ______.

ii) After the starch test, leaf Y would look like____.

d) The experiment with leaf Y shows that photosynthesis requires the presence of certain factors. Mention any one factor.

10) The following diagram is setup to demonstrate an experiment: pondweed was placed in 5 water-filled tubes. The experiment was setup as shown in the diagram. The tubes were then left for 24 hours.

Write the correct answer out of the 5 available choices given under each question :

A) In which tube would you expect the greatest increase in dry weight of the pondweed ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 d) 5 

B) In which tube would you expect to find the plant with the least amount of starch ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 

C) The tube in which most oxygen will be found is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

D) The tube in which least carbon dioxide will be found is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

E) The tube in which the plant would survive for the shortest length of time is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

11) The following diagrams refers to an experiment in which the apparatus was setup with the light source 10cm away from the plant. After 15 minutes the number of bubbles evelved per minute from the cut stem was recorded. The light source was moved to 20cm away from the plant, left for 15 minutes and the number of bubbles evolved per minute was again recorded. The experiment was repeated with the light source at distances of 40, 60, 80 and 100cm away from the plant. The results obtained were recorded on the graph.

Select the correct answer out of the available choices given under each question:

A) From the graph it seems likely that the rate of bubbling per minute at 50cm would have been:

a) 2.0 b) 2.5 c) 3.0 d) 3.5 e) 4.0

B) The gas product by the plant during the experiment was:

a) air b) oxygen c) carbon dioxide d) nitrogen e) hydrogen 

C) The gas collected comes due to breakdown of :

a) glucose b) starch c) water d) air e) ATP

D) if Ice cubes were added to the water, the rate of bubble formation would :

a) stay the same.

b) increase because more water is added.

c) decrease because the temperature drops.

d) decrease because water freezes.

e) cannot tell from the information given.

E) if some sodium bicarbonate is added to the water, the rate of bubble formation:

a) increases because more respiration occurs.

b) increases because more Photosynthesis occurs.

c) increases because the gas becomes less soluble.

d) decreases because carbon dioxide acts as a limiting factor.

e) decreases because respiration decreases.

12)a) Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of the chloroplast.

b) List the events taking place in the photochemical phase of photosynthesis.

c) if you are planning an experiment to show the effect of light on photosynthesis.

     i) Will you select white light or green light ? justify your answer.

     ii) Why would you select a destarched plant ?

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY 

Very Short Questions 

A)1) "When an aqueous solutions of Ammonium hydroxide is added to zinc sulphate solution, a red percipitate of zinc hydroxide is obtained, which is insoluble in excess of Ammonium hydroxide solution." Is this statement correct ? If not, correct it.

2) "When solutions of ammonium hydroxide and copper sulphate are mixed , no precipitate is formed ." This statement is incorrect. Correct the statement.

3) State the colour of the participate observed when caustic soda solution is added to the zinc sulphate solution (prepared in water).

4) Write the balanced chemical equation to show the reaction of magnesium chloride solution and ammonium hydroxide.

5) State the colour of the precipitate formed when ammonium hydroxide is added drop by drop and then in excess to aqueous solution of the magnesium chloride.

6) How does sodium hydroxide solution act in distinguishing iron(II ) chloride from iron(III ) chloride solution ?

7) Write balanced equation for the following reaction.

Aluminium powder is warmed with hot and concentrated caustic soda solution.

8) Write balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:

 Aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide solution.

B) GIVE REASONS :

1) A solution of ferrous chloride in water, which is very light green, changes into reddish brown colour when exposed to air for some time.

2) Green coloured crystals of ferrous sulphate turns brown when exposed to air for a long duration of time.

C) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct word/s given within the brackets 

1) The formula of sodium plumbate is____.(NaPbO₂/Na₂PbO₂)

2) The colour of hydrated zinc sulphate is_____.(blue/white)

3) On adding aqueous solution of Ammonium hydroxide to ferric chloride, a ____ colour precipitate of ferric chloride is formed . (reddish brown/ sky blue)

4) The valency of copper in copper sulphate is_____. (One/two )

5) Zinc chloride solution reacts with caustic soda solution to give a ____ coloured precipitate . (Red/white)

6) The salt of lead, soluble in hot water and insoluble in cold water is ____. (lead sulphate/ lead chloride)

D) Name the following:

1) The precipitate formed when NaOH solution is added to FeSO₄ solution.

2) The products formed when NH₄OH solution is added to CuSO₄ solution in excess . 

3) The colour of the precipitate formed on adding sodium hydroxide solution to MgCl₂ solution. 

4) The colour of the precipitate formed on adding NH₄OH solution to MgCl₂ solution.

5) The products formed when ZnSO₄ solution is added to sodium hydroxide solution in excess. 

6) A solution of this compound gives a dirty green precipitate with Sodium hydroxide. 

E) State whether True or False:

1) A reddish brown precipitate is formed when iron (III) chloride and sodium hydroxide solutions are mixed. 

2) When copper sulphate solution is treated with sodium hydroxide solution, a pale blue percipitate of copper(II ) hydroxide is formed. 

3) The colour of percipitate of Mg(OH)₂ is dull white. 

4) On adding aqueous solution of Ammonium hydroxide to lead nitrate solution, a green percipitate is formed, which is insoluble in excess of Ammonium hydroxide. 

SHORT QUESTIONS 

1) How would you convert:

a) aluminium into potassium metaluminate ?

2) 

2) Give equations for the action of aluminium oxide with concentrated sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide.

4) How will you distinguish between MgSO₄ and ZnSO₄ by studying their reaction with NH₄OH ?

5) a) What are amphoteric oxides ?

b) Why these oxides react with NaOH ?.

6) Write down equation for each of the following reactions:

a) Solution of the ammonium chloride in sodium hydroxide are mixed and heated.

                           

b) copper sulphate solution is added to sodium hydroxide solution 

7) Three test tubes contain calcium nitrate solution, zinc nitrate solution and lead nitrate solution respectively . Each solution is divided into two portions. Describe the effect of:

a) adding sodium hydroxide solution to each portion in turn till it is in excess.

b) adding Ammonium hydroxide to each portion in turn till it is in excess.

8) Sodium hydroxide solution can be used to distinguish between iron(II) sulphate solution and iron(III) sulphate solution because these solutions give different coloured precipitates with sodium hydroxide solution. Give the colour of the precipitate formed with:

a) iron(II) sulphate solution. 

b) iron(III) sulphate solution. 

9) State what do you observe when :

a) neutral litmus solution is added to an alkaline solution.

b) ammonium hydroxide is added to iron(III) sulphate solution.

10) How do you distinguish between Zn²⁺ and Pb²⁺ using Ammonium hydroxide solution ?

Each Question Carries 3 Marks:

1) State the colour of the following salts:

a) copper chloride.

b) copper nitrate . 

c) ferric chloride. 

d) lead nitrate.

e) magnesium carbonate.

f) zinc hydroxide. 

2) State the colour of the aqueous solution of the following salts :

a) magnesium sulphide crystals.     

b) ferrous chloride crystals.

c) ferric chloride crystals .

d) ferrous sulphate crystals . 

e) ferric sulphate crystals . 

f) copper sulphate crystals. 

3) Give the chemical equation to show the reaction between caustic soda solution and:

a) zinc oxide.

b) Aluminium oxide.

c) lead oxide.

4) State the colour of the percipitates formed when ammonium hydroxide is added drop by drop and then in excess to aqueous solution of:

a) calcium chloride.

b) zinc sulphate. 

c) lead nitrate. 

d) ferrous sulphate.  

e) ferric chloride. 

f) copper sulphate. 

5) How does Sodium hydroxide react with the following salts ?

a) ZnSO₄.

b) CuSO₄

c) FeSO₄

6) Describe the action of NH₄OH on the following:

a) CuSO₄

b) Fe₂(SO₄)₃

c) FeSO₄

7) Complete the following equations:

a) Zn(OH)₂ + NaOH---> _______+ ____

b) _____ + NaOH ---> Fe(OH)₃ + NaCl.

c) Zn(OH)₂ + NH₄OH ---> _____+ ____

       

LONG TYPE QUESTIONS:

1) Give balanced chemical equations to show the reaction of:

a) lead and caustic soda solution.

b) aluminium and caustic Potash solution.

c) lead oxide with caustic soda solution.

d) ferrous chloride with Ammonium hydroxide. 

2) State the colour of the percipitate observed when caustic soda solution is added to each of the following solutions (prepared in water):

a) copper sulphate crystals. 

b) ferrous sulphate crystals. 

c) ferric chloride crystals. 

d) magnesium sulphate crystals. 

e) lead nitrate crystals. 

f) zinc chloride crystals. 

g) magnesium chloride. 

h) calcium chloride. 

3) Give the reactions of Ammonium hydroxide with the formation :

a) zinc chloride solution.

b) ferric chloride solution. 

c) copper chloride solution.

d) magnesium sulphate solution.

e) ferrous sulphate solution.

f) lead nitrate solution.

g) zinc sulphate solution.

4) Write balanced equations for the action of zinc and lead with:

a) Sodium hydroxide.

b) potassium hydroxide.

5) Give equation for the action of zinc oxide and lead oxide with concentrated sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide.

6) What is the action of KOH on:

a) CuSO₄

b) MgSO₄.

 

c) ZnSO₄

 

d) Fe₂(SO₄)₃

7) Complete and balance the following equations:

a) CuSI₄+ ____ ---> Cu(OH)₂+ (NH₄)₂SO₄

b) Al + NaOH + ____ ---> ____+ H₂

c) PbO + NaOH-->]____+ ____

d) ____+ NaOH---> NaAlO₂+ ______ .

8) What products are found when :

a) aqueous solution of NH₄OH is treated with zinc sulphate solution ?

b) Sodium hydroxide is added to is added to MgSO₄(aq) ?

c) NaOH(aq) is added to Pb(NO₃)₂ solution ?

d) NaOH(aq) is treated with Al₂O₃?

9) Using sodium hydroxide solution. how would you distinguish

a) Ammonium sulphate from sodium sulphate ?

b) zinc nitrate solution from calcium nitrate solution ?

c) Iron (III) chloride (ferrous chloride) solution from iron(III) chloride (ferric chloride) solution ?

d) lead hydroxide from magnesium hydroxide ?

1) Complete and balance the following equations:

a) KOH + H₂SO₄ --> ____+ ___

b) ____+ HNO₃---> Pb(NO₃)₂ + ____.

c) CaCl₂ + ____ --> Ca(OH)₂+ NaCl

d) ____+ ____ --> Pb(OH)₂+ NaNO₃ 

e) Pb(OH)₂ + NaOH ---> ___+ ____

2) a) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to solution A. A white precipitate is formed which is insoluble in excess sodium hydroxide solution. What is the metal ion present in solution A ?

b) When ammonium hydroxide is added to solution B, it gives an a inky blue solution. What is the cation present in solution B ? What is the probable colour of solution B ?

c) When an ammonium salt is warmed with sodium hydroxide solution, ammonium gas is evolved. State three ways in which you could identify this gas.

POPULATION 

A) Definition 

1) Population : The total number of individual of species living in a particular geographic area at a given time is called population.

2) Population density: The number of indivisuals living in per unit area is called.

3) Demography: The scientific study of all the aspects of population is known as.

4) Population dynamics: The study of change in size and distribution of the human population due to the major fluctuations in the environment is called.

5) Birth rate or natality : The number of children born per person in the population per unit time is termed as birth rate or natality. It is expressed as the live births per year per 1000 persons of the population.

Birth rate= total number of children born(live) in a year/total population in the middle of the year  x 1000

6) Mortality: The number of individual who die during per unit time is termed as death rate or mortality. It is expressed as the number of deaths per 1000 persons of the population in year.

Death rate= total number of the deaths in a year/total population in the middle of the year  x 1000

7) Fertility rate: The number of children born per unit time per unit number of fertile females is termed as fertility rate.

Fertile Rate= total number of children born(live) in a year/ total number of fertile women (14-45 years) x 1000

8) Population growth: The rate of increase or decrease in the number of individuals of the population in a specific period is.

9) Growth rate: The increase in the number of individuals per unit time per unit number of individuals in the population is

10) The main reasons contributing to the population grows are--

a) improved the medical facilities and public health measures.

b) Famine and flood relief measures.

c) advancement in science and technology.

d) Improved agricultural techniques 

e) Control of diseases and elimination of epidemics.

11) The main reasons for high birth rate :

a) low marriage age 

b) social and religious attitudes.

c) Improved life expectancy.

d) Lack of family planning.

e) Desire for a male child.

f)  Illiteracy.

12) Family planning or birth control : is an attempt to control the number of births in a family so that a couple may not have more than two children.

13) The scientific methods of birth control are:

a) Oral contraceptive pills.

b) intra-uterine contraceptive device like copper-T or Lippe's loop.

c) condoms, diaphragms, or spermicidal agents.

d) tubectomy 

e) vesoctomy

f) corrective method 

g) Rhythm method 

14) Tubectomy (in females) : is the surgical removal of small segments of both the oviducts or fallopian tubes and tying the cut ends with threads to prevent the passage of egg and its fertilization by sperm.

15) Vasoctamy (in males) : is the surgical removal of small segments of both the vas  dereerns ( sperm ducts) and tying the cut ends with threads to prevent the passage of sperms.

16) Laparoscopy: is the mechanism of tubal ligation (tying of oviducts) to block them with the help of instrument called laparoscope. It is applied in females.

17) Mass media: The government uses radio, TV, newspapers, magazine and other audio-visuals to spread the message of family planning.

18) population education: is the knowledge or education about the relationship of avaibility and size of the resources for the Welfare of the society.

19) Sex ratio : The comparative number of males and females in a population is.

20) Age ratio : The number of individuals belonging to different age groups is

21) Physical enumeration: The estimation of human population by physically counting of the individual per unit area is

22) Growth rate of population: The difference between the birth rate and the death rate is 

23) Population explosion : Rapid increase in population is termed as 

24) Overpopulation: When the population growth rate is higher than the national income, the per capita income tends to decline. This is regarded as the state of overpopulation. 

B) FILL IN THE BLANKS:

a) The major causes of population explosion in India is____.  (early marriage/ late marriage)

b) The scientific study of population is called_____.   ( birth rate/demography)

c) Minimum age of marriage for boys is___ and for girls____ years.  (21/25/ 18/ 23)

d) The popular sign of family planning in India is___. ( inverted triangle/ inverted blue triangle)

e) The addition of new only indivisuals to the population from other localities is called ___.   (Immigration/ emigration)

f) _____ is the cutting of fallopian tube in females.   (Vasoctamy/Tubectomy)

g) Number of people increases in ____progression while food production rises in ___ progression.    (geometric/arithmetic)

h) Amniocentesis is misuse for ____ tests.    (Sex/population)

i) ____' is the cutting of spermatic ducts in males. ( tobactomy/ vasactomy)

C) Name the following 

1) The exceptionally high rate growth of population.      

2) The total number of individuals of a species found in a particular areas, continent of whole Earth.   

3) Two renewable sources for mankind.   

4) Two nonrenewable sources for mankind.    

5) Changes that occur in population due to alteration in mortality, sex ratio , age groups etc.,      

6) The actual birth rate that occurs under the existing condition.     

7) The actual number of deaths in the existing condition.    

8) The method of contraception which involves determination of the women's safe period.     

9) A rubber device placed over the cervix to prevent conception.     

10) The technical term used for the difference between the birth rate and the death rate in a population.    

11) The number of individuals per unit area.   

12) The term for the statistical study of the human population 

oR

 the scientific study of human population.  

13) Two surgical techniques (one each for human male and female) that can be used to prevent pregnancy.   

14) Mutually beneficial association of two living organisms.      

D) Match the column 

Column A 

i) Demography 

ii) contraceptives 

iii) birth rate 

iv) Tubectomy 

v) abortion 

vi) mortality

Column B 

a) is the number of deaths in a specified period of time.

b) sterilization in females 

c) scientific study of population

d) termination of pregnancy

e) prevent ovulation in females

f) naatality 

D) VERY SHORT QUESTIONS 

1) Name some patterns of population distribution.

2) Why has growth rate increased in India despite fall in the birth rate ?

3) What is the present rate of growth of population of the world and of our country ?

4) What is emigration ?.

5) What is meant by realised natality and the realised mortality?

6) What are growth curves and what do they signify ?

7) List three major landmarks in human history which contributed to sudden rise in the population of the world.

8) How much is the population density of India ?

9) What was the approximate Indian population according to the 1981 census ? What was it in 2001 ?

10) What is carrying capacity ? List some factors which determine in it.

11) Sterilization in men means preventing the flow of sperms into the seminal vesicles by cutting or ligaturing the vas deferns. Can there be corresponding operation made in woman ? if yes, where ?

12) What is meant by the family welfare centres ? What is the sign of Family Welfare in our country ?

13) Suggest some methods of fertility control in men.

14) What is the meaning of the term 'growth rate of the population'? In what situations can be negative ?

15) What are the problems created by ultimate growth of human population in urban areas ?

16) List four major disadvantages of having large families.

17) What is the emblem (sign)) of family planning and Family Welfare in India ?

18) Which is the most thickly populated state in India ?

19) List three important aspects of demography.

20) Suggest any three steps which may be taken towards controlling the rapid rise in human population in India.

21) Expand the term IUD 

22) Write the full form of MTP 

23) Choose the odd one and give a reason for your answer

Spermicide, Condom , intra-uterine device, Fungicide 

24) How is electronic media education people about the importance of small families?

25) Name any two renewable and two non-renewable resources for mankind.

 

26) State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the wrong statements by changing only one word:

a) birth rate is the number of live births per 100 of population per year.

b) fossil fuels are renewable resources .

c) use of condom for contraception is a barrier method.

27) Explain briefly that the need to limit the size of the family is more vital today than ever before. Give two reasons.

28) Differentiate between Vasectomy and Tubectomy (parts operated)

29) Explain briefly the following term : death rate.

30) What are the age restrictions for the marriages by law for boys and girls in India ?

31) What do you understand by the density of population?

32) Name two surgical techniques (one each for human male and the female) that are used to prevent pregnancy.

33) define birth rate 

34) Mention any four reasons for the rapid increase of population in India in recent times.

35) Give the appropriate term for the following:

 The surgical method of sterilization in the human female. 

36) State whether the following statement is true or false. If false , write the correct statement by changing the incorrect word or words only.

Mortality is the number of deaths per thousand of the population per decade.

37)  List the reason for the population explosion

OR

 Mention two reasons for the high birth rate in India.

38) Given below is an incomplete explanation of certain biological process/ term where a key word has been left out. Rewrite the completeed explanation by inserting the key word in the space indicating by ' '

Birth rate is the number of  ' ' births per thousand of the population per year.

39) Mention three main reasons for the sharp rise in "Human population" in the world.

E) Choose the correct answer 

1) Sterilization in males involves cutting and tying of:

a) ureter  b) urethra c) vas deferns d) epididymis 

2) The contraceptive method which is least reliable:

a) withdrawal b) diaphragm c) IUD d) condom

3) The contraceptive method which is most reliable :

a) diaphragm b) IUD c) withdrawl  d) contraceptive pill 

4) thre contraceptive method which is a barrier method used to by the male :

a) IUD b) withdrawal  c) hormonal pills d) condom

5)  sterilization in females involves cutting and tying the:

a) ureter  b) uterus c) Urethra d) oviduct

F) Observe the diagrams A and B given below:

a) level partr 1-5 

b) what does diagram A depict ?

c) what does diagram B depict ?

d) comment on X and Y.

e) state one function each of part 2 and 4.

ACID , BASE SALT

A) Choose the correct alternative 

1) Which is a hydroscopic substances 

a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) Calcium oxide c) Phosphorus pentoxide d) all of these 

2) The degree of ionization of an acid is called:

a) strength of an acid  b) concentration of an acid c) combining capacity of an acid d) both a and b

3) The property of salts, giving up water of crystallization to the atmosphere is

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescence d) none

4) The property of salts of absorbing moisture from the air and then changing to liquid state is:

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescence d) none

5) The property of salts of observing moisture from air, but do not change into liquid state is:

a) Deliquescences b) hybroscopic c) efflorescences d) none

6) A salt which is amphoteric in nature is:

a) ZnO b) CuO c) Fe₂O₃ d) CaO

7) Which of the following forms acidic solution in water ?

a) CuSO₄ b) ZnSO₄ c) K₂SO₄  d) both a and b 

8) Ammonium hydroxide solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

9) Ammonium sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature  b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

10) Sodium carbonate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature  b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none

11) Sodium sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none of these 

12) Copper sulphate solution is:

a) alkaline in nature b) acidic in nature c) neutral in nature d) none of these 

13) An oxide of a nonmetal used for making soft drinks is:

a) SO₂ gas b) CO gas c) NO₂ gas d) CO₂ gas

14) A soluble metallic compound with H⁺(aq) ions of an acid to form a salt in water as only products is:

a) alkali b) base c) basic salt  d) none of these 

15) An acid salt is:

a) Potassium hydrogen sulphate b) potassium hydrogen carbonate c) magnesium hydrogen carbonate d) all of these 

16) an inorganic acid amongst the following is:

a) Acetic Acid b) formic acid c) hydro-cyanic acid d) oxalic acid

17) A tribasic acid is:

a) H₂SO₃ b) H₃PO₄ c) HNO₃ d) CH₃COOH

18) The salt which forms neutral solution in water is:

a) sodium sulphate b) ammonium chloride c) copper sulphate d) silver nitrate

19) a salt which forms an acidic solution in water is:

a) sodium chloride b) ammonia carbonate c) silver nitrate d) potassium sulphate 

20) A salt which forms basic solution in water.

a) CH₃COONH₄ b) CH₃COOK c) KCl d) NaNO₃

21) The base amongst the following compounds is :

a) sodium hydroxide b) potassium hydroxide c) copper hydroxide d) ammonium hydroxide 

22) 2Al(OH)₃+ 3H₂SO₄ ---> Al₂(SO₄)₃ + 6H₂O

in the above chemical equation the acidity of Al(OH)₃ is:

a) 1 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2

23) The salt which forms a neutral solution is water is:

a) (NH₄)₂SO₄ b) Na₂SO₄ c) Na₂CO₃ d) Cu(NO₃)₂ 

24) the colour of pH paper in odourless solution of ph7 is

a) deep blue b) yellow c) green d) Orange

25) The colour of pH paper in limewater [Ca(OH)₂] is 

a) green b) red c) blue d) Orange 

26) Ammonium hydroxide is an example of 

a) strong alkali b) weak alkali c) strong base d) none of these 

27) Sodium nitrate is an example of:

a) normal salt b) acidic salt c) basic salt d) none of these 

28) Sodium acetate(CH₃COONa) is an example of:

a) normal salt b) basic salt c) acidic salt d) none of these 

29) pH of dil. H₂SO₄ is more than acetic acid. So Sulphuric acid has

a) greater concentration of H⁺ ions b) same concentration of H⁺ ions c) low concentration of H⁺ ions d) none of these 

30) The base amongst the following hydroxides is:

a) sodium hydroxide b) ammonium hydroxide c) copper hydroxide d) potassium hydroxide

31) Zinc oxide dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid as well as in conc. NaOH solution. The nature of zinc oxide is 

a) acidic b) alkaline c) neutral d) amphoteric 

32) The pH of a solution is 6. The pH of the solution can be increased by adding to it :

a) few drops of conc. KOH solution b) few drops of conc. HCL c) 1 ml of water d) none of these 

33) A particular solution contains molecules and ions of a solute, so it is a 

a) strong acid b) strong base c) weak acid d) sodium chloride solution 

34) An example of a complex salt is:

a) copper sulphate b) potasium hydrogen sulphate c) iron(II ) ammonium sulphate d)  tetra amine copper (II) sulphate

35) Acid is a compound, which on dissolving in water furnishes:

a) hydrogen ion b) hydroxil ion c) hydronium ion d) both a and c 

36) An aqueous solution of hydrogen sulphide gas is a :

a) strong acid b) strong alkali c) weak alkali d) weak acid

37) Conc. nitric acid stains the skin:

a) black b) brown c) yellow d) red 

38) Which is the base amongst the following ?

a) LiOH b) NaOH c) Mg(OH)₂ d) KOH

39) Which acid is the dibasic amongst the following ?

a) sulphuric acid  b) sulphurous acid c) hydrogen sulphide solution d) all of these 

40) Which is triacidic base?

a) Almunium hydroxide  b) iron(II ) hydroxide c) ammonium hydroxide d) both a and b

41) degree of ionization of an acid X is 6%. The acid X is:

a) dilute acid  b) concentrated acid c)?weak acid  d) strong acid

42) the pH of solution is 1.2. The solution is :

a) Mildly acidic b) strongly acidic c) Mildly alkaline d) strongly alkaline

43) the pH of a colourless liquid is 13. The liquid is a :

a) very strong acid b) very strong alkali c) a weak acid d) a weak alkali 

44) A solution turns pH paper blue. The pH paper is kept within the solution and another solution X is added drop by drop. It is found that pH paper turns green. The nature of solution X is:

a) Acidic b) alkaline c) neutral d) none of these 

45) The metallic oxide which dissolved in water to form alkali is :

a) K₂O b) Al₂O₃ c) ZnO d) CuO

B) Identity the following:

1) A compound which on dissolving in water furnishes hydronium ion as the only positively charged ions.

2) An acid which furnishes 3 hydronium ions per molecules on ionization.

3) An Acid which undergoes partial dissociation, on dissolving in water.

4) A water soluble base, which furnishes hydroxyl ions.

5) The number of H⁺ ions of an acid which react completely with one molecule of base to form salt and water as only products .

6) An indicator which turns pink in alkaline solution and colourless in an acid solution.

7) A hydrated salt which loses its water of crystallization on exposure to air.

8) The phenomena due to which salt reacts with water to form parent acid and alkali.

9) A salt which absorbs moisture from air and changes into liquid state.

C) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the brackets:

1) A more volatile acid obtained, when a less volatile acid reacts with sodium nitrate is ___.( sulphuric acid/nitric acid)

2) an example of an acid derived from a mineral acid is ____.(acetic acid/citric acid/hydrochloric acid)

3) an example of a base which is not on alkali is ____.(caustic potash/ copper hydroxide/ ammonium hydroxide)

4) an example of a weak acid is____(HCl/H₂CO₃/HNO₃/H₂SO₄)

5) an example of a weak alkali solution is____.( sodium hydroxide/ potassium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide)

6) An acid having a basicity 2 is ____(acetic acid/nitric acid/carbonic acid)

7) An example of insoluble salt is____.(Na₂SO₄/CuSO₄/PbSO₄/ZnSO₄)

8) an example of a salt which produces neutral solution on hydrolysis is____.( sodium acetate /sodium carbonate/sodium chloride)

9) An example of acidic salt is____,(NaHSO₄/CH₃COONa/K₂SO₄)

10) The colour of hydrated copper sulphate is____.( light blue/black /white)

11) the example of an amphoteric hydroxide is ____.(Ca(OH)₂/ Cu(OH)₂/ Al(OH)₃/Fe(OH)₃)

12) the hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NaOH is____. (Al(OH)₃/ Fe(OH)₂/ Cu(OH)₂)

13) an oxide of a metal which is amphoteric in nature is ____. (PbO/Pb₃O₄/PbO₂)

D) Match the Column A and column B 

Column A.        Column B

1) Acidic salt   a) sodium Potassium carbonate 

2) mixed salt   b) Alum

3) complex salt  c) sodium carbonate 

4) double salt   d) sodium zincate 

5) normal salt   e) sodium hydroxide carbonate 

E) Write balanced equation for the following reactions

1) potassium hydrogen carbonate and dilute sulphuric acid.

2) copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) manganese(IV) oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid.

4) Sulphur and hot concentrated nitric acid.

5) sodium nitrate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

F) Short questions (2)

1) Differentiate between hydracids and oxy-acids. Give examples.

2) On what basis are the strength of a) acids  b) alkalis determined ?

3) differentiate between a strong acid and weak acid. Give two examples .

4) differentiate between a strong alkali and a weak alkali.

5) Explain why is the basicity of an acetic acid is one, and the acidity of magnesium hydroxide is 2.

6) How will you obtain a) Sulphuric acid from an acidic oxide b) potassium hydroxide from a basic oxide ?

7) write fully balanced chemical equations for the reaction of conc. Sulphuric acid with 

a) metallic chloride 

b) metallic nitrate, why the chloride and nitrate form their respective acids.

8) 1 molar solution of Acetic acid is a weak acid as compared to 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid? Why? Explain your answer.

9) Give one chemical property (not indicators) with a balanced equation in each which are typical of

a) dilute acid 

b) a dilute aqueous alkalis.

10) Mention the terms defined by the following sentences:

a) A soluble base.

b) An insoluble solid formed, when two solution are mixed together.

G) 3 Marks Questions 

1) Why is sulphuric acid is a diabasic acid ? Give three reasons. Support your answer with equations, wherever possible.

2) State two chemical properties each with equations for 

a) a strong solution containing ions solution containing H⁺ (aq) ions.

b) a solution containing OH⁻ ions.

3) Show ironically why

a) phosphoric acid 

b) Sulphuric acid

c) Acetic Acid are called acids.

4) Define the following terms giving one example in each case 

a) an acid 

b) A base 

c) An acid salt.

5) Zinc metal and Aluminium metal are amphoteric in nature. What do you understand by the statement ? Support your answer by writing fully balanced chemical equations.

6) Solution A is a strong acid

    Solution B is a weak acid 

    Solution C is a strong alkali 

a) which solution contains soluble molecules in addition to water molecules ?

b) which solution will give a gelatinous white precipitate with zinc sulphate solution ? The precipitate disappears when an excess of the solution is added.

c) Which solution could be a solution of glacial Acetic Acid ?

d) Give an example of a solution which is a weak alkali.

7) What is observed when :

a) Hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through the lead acetate solution ?

b) Neutral litmus solution is added to sodium hydrogen carbonate solution ?

c) a small piece of iron is placed in copper sulphate solution ?

8) a) Acids dissolve in water to produce positively charged ions. Draw the structure of these positive ions. 

b) Explain , why carbon tetrachloride does not dissolve in water.

c) Elements Q and S react together to form an ionic compound. Under normal conditions , which physical state will the compound QS exist in .

d) can Q and S, both be metals ? justify your answer.

9) Write the observations and balanced equation for the following reaction:

a) sodium hydroxide is added drop by drop, till in excess, in a solution of zinc sulphate.

b) ammonium hydroxide is added first in small quantity and then excess to a solution of copper sulphate.

c) Excess of ammonium hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by the action of hydrochloric acid in silver nitrate.

10) Starting with copper chips and concentrated nitric acid, describe briefly how you can prepare black copper oxide.

11) For each of the conversion A, B, C, D and E in the scheme below, state briefly in words, how the conversions can be carried out.

12) Starting from potassium hydroxide and nitric acid, how will you prepare crystals of potassium nitrate ?

13) Briefly describe, how will you obtain crystal of zinc sulphate starting from zinc and dilute sulphuric acid.

14)  Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.

a) Zinc sulphate solution and zinc chloride solution.

b) iron(II ) chloride solution and iron(III ) chloride solution.

c) Calcium nitrate solution and calcium chloride solution.

15) A solution M turns blue litmus red while another solution N turns red litmus blue. In the above context answer the following questions.

a) What does M must contain?

b) What does N must contain?

c) When M and N are mixed together, name one of the product formed .

d) when M and N are mixed together, name the other products formed.

e) If a piece of magnesium was put in to a solution M, name the gas evolved.

16) The pH value of 3 solution P, Q, R are the given in the table.

Solution           pH value 

P.                       12

Q                        2

R                        7

Answer the followings:

a) Which solution will have no effect on litmus solution?

b) Which solution will liberate CO₂ when reacted with sodium carbonate?

c) Which solution will turn red litmus blue?

d) Which solution will turn blue litmus red?

e) Which solution is also known as alkali 

17) Answer the following:

a) The pH of a solution S is 10. What is nature of solution ?

b) If the pH of solution is to be the increased name the compound we should add to it.

c) Name the kind of particles present in the solution of the sodium chloride.

d) Name kind of particles present in the solution of carbonic acid.

e) Name kind of particles present in the glucose solution.

18) You are provided with copper carbonate and concentrated sulphuric acid. How will you proceed to prepare hydrated crystals of copper sulphate ?

19) You are required to prepare lead sulphate from lead carbonate. Briefly explain how will you proceed.

20) We cannot prepare calcium sulphate by treating marble chips with dilute sulphuric acid. Outline the procedure to prepare calcium sulphate from marble chips.

GENETICS 

A) DEFINE: 

a) Genetics,

b) Heredity.

c) Law of dominance.

d) Law of segregation.

e) Law of independent assortment.

f) Dominant character.

g) Recessive character.

h) Allele

i) Homozygous.

j) Heterozygous.

k) Phenotype.

l) Genotype.

m) Chromosome.

n) Genes.

o) Monohybrid cross.

p) Dihybrid cross.

q) Linkage.

r) Mutation.

s) Variation.

t) Autosomes

u) Dihybrid ratio

v) Homologous chromosomes

B) Fill the blanks:

a) An organism with two copies of the same allele is____. (homologous for the allele/heterozygous for that trait/homozygous for that trait)

b) _____is a heritable change in the structure and composition of gene or in the number of chromosomes. (Variation/mutation/gene)

c) A women receives her X-chromosome from ______. (her mother only/her father only/both her mother and father)

d) Upon_____the diploid condition of chromosomes is restored. (Fertilization/mixing of gametes/crossing over)

e) Each gene of a pair of genes controlling a character is ____to the other.(an allele/a factor/a partner)

f) Human egg cells have___Y chromosomes. (One/two/no)

g) ____genes only exert their effect when there are two copies of it in a single individual. (Dominant/recessive/co-dominant)

h) ___ is considered the father of genetics.

i) Chromosome carry genetic information in section called_____.

j) Genes are made of a chemical called_____. This chemical is in the form of a double__

k) ____is the result of trisomy of the 21ˢᵗ chromosome. This is a result of____ .

l) A character that is masked is considered_____while that which is expressed is known as______ .

m) ____results in haploid number of chromosome in gametes.

n) Genes are in pairs, known as_____ .

o) In a Dihybrid cross, phenotypic ratio is____ .

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The number of homologous chromosomes in each normal human cell.    

2) The scientist who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance.           

3) The plant used by Mendel for his experiments.      

4) The number of pairs of Chromosomes in man and drosophila.      

5) Fundamental unit of heredity. 

6) The condition in which both the alleles are identical.     

7) The allele which expresses itself on the other.        

8) The Mandelian cross which is carried out by taking one pair of contrasting character.         

9) The chemical substance which constitutes the genes.       

10) Total number of chromosomes in humans.        

11) The second law of Mandel.  

12) The sex chromosomes of a male.      

13) Phenotype of the F₂ generation in a self cross between offspring of homozygous pea plant bearing red flowers and homozygous pea plant bearing white flowers.        

14) Any three animals having 19 pairs of Chromosomes.      

15) An alteration in genetic material that can be inherited.      

16) Pair of genes responsible for a particular characteristics in an individual. .          

17) The structure that acts as bearer of heredity units.
    OR
The structure that transmits characteristics from patent to offspring.        

D) Very Short Answers Type Questions:

1) What is sex-linked inheritance?

2) What is the difference between character and traits ?

3) Some conditions in humans are caused by family genes and chromosomes. Give two examples of these conditions.

4) Define Mendel's law of dominance..

5) What are autosomes?

6) What is dehybrid ratio?

7) The number of pairs of autosomes in men is 22.       

E) Short Answer Type Questions:

1) a) What are genes ?
b) Where are they found in the cell?
c) Mention their functions.

2) If homozygous Tall lant bearing red flowers is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant bearing white flowers---

a) What will be the genotype and the phenotype of the first filial generation ?

b) If the F₁ plants are self pollinated, what will be the ratio of pure dwarf white offsprings and pure tail red offsprings?

3) a) What is a mutation?

b) Write two causes of mutation.

4) Give the dehybrid ratio. Name and state the law which explains the same.

F) Differentiate Between 

a) Test cross & Back cross 

b) Pure strain/Hybrid strain.

G) SELECT THE CORRECT OPTION

1) If red flower colour is dominant to white flower colour, which of the following statement is correct:

a) all red flowered plant from the red flowered plants.

b) a few red flowered plants from the red flowered plants.

c) only white flowered plants from white flowered plants.   .....

d) ratio of white to Red flowered hybrid plants is 1:1 .

2) which of the following terms represents a pair of contrasting characters or factors?

a) allele ...... b) phenotype

c) Homozygous d) heterozygous

3) RR( red) is crossed with rr (white) . All the RR offspring are pink. This is an indication that R gene is:

a) hybrid b) recessive

c) incompletely dominant....

d) mutant

4) a true breeding tall and smooth seeded pea plant is crossed with true breeding dwarf and wrinkled seeded plants. The fact that F¹ plants were all ta demonstrates:

a) principle of assortment of characters

b) that recombination of characters appears in F² generation.

c) that P¹ tall plants were heterozygous.

d) that tallness was dominant to dwarfness.....

5) If tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant. this type of cross is called

a) dihybrid B) monohybrid.....

c) reciprocal d) trihydrate 

6) how many genes a child receives from its father 

a) 25% b) 50% ....c) 75% d) 100%

7) visible characteristics of an organism are called

a) phenotypes ....b) genotype

c) homozygous D) heterozygous

8) Two homozygous genes are exactly similar in a genotype called :

A) heterozygous b) hemizygous

c) homozygous... D) none

9) law of independent assortment can be proved on the basis of which of the following ratios 

A) 3:1 b) 2:1:1 c) 9:3:3:1... d)2:1

10) after crossing a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant, all the offspring were tall. If one of these new tall pea plants is crossed with a dwarf plant. the ratio of tall to do dwarf in the next generation would be:

a) 1 tall: 1 dwarf....

b) 3 tall: 1 dwarf

c) all tall

d) all dwarf

H) Questions Base Diagram 

1) If a pea plant Homozygous (pure) for tall is crossed with one homozygous (pure) for dwarf. What will be the appearance of a) F₁ b) F₂ progenies. (The character of tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfness (t))

Homozygous (pure) tall plant is designated as - TT

homozygous (pure) dwatf plant is designated as -- tt

2) The karyotype (set a chromosomes) Shown the diagram is taken from a dividing cell in a certain individual .

a) Is the individual male or female ? explain your answer.

b) How do you expect a (i) female cell (ii) sperm cell to differ in chromosome composition ?

3) in sexual reproduction p, gametes are found. Male and female gametes fuse to form a fertilized egg.

Complete the diagram to show the chromosome numbers in this process in humans.

4) The diagram shows the sex chromosomes of a human couple, A and B, and four of their children C, D, E and F.

a) Which parents is the mother ?

b) Explain why you choose this parent.

c) Another child is expected. What are the chance of it being a girl ?

5) A certain type of plant has either red, white or pink flowers. Crossing a red-flowered plant with white produces pink. Draw a genetic diagram to show the expected results for a cross between a plant with pink flowers and a plant with red flowers. Use the symbol R for the allele for red, and W for the white.

6) Grey body is dominant to black body in fruit flies. Starting with a pure breeding grey fly (that is one whose ancestors have all been grey) and an ebony fly, draw a diagram to show parental, F₁ and F₂ generations. Use the symbol e for ebony and E for grey allelies.

7) Figure show a family Pedigree (family tree) to show the inheritance of cystic fibrosis.

a) Use the Allele for cystic fibrosis dominant or recessive ?

b) State with reasons the genotype of individual 1, 2 and 4.

c) What are the possible genotypes of individuals 3 and 5 ?

8) Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked inherited characteristic. The gene(allele) b colour blindness is recessive to the gene B for normal vision. The gene b is carried only on the X chromosome.

a) Describe these phenotypes.

b) Explain why Red-green colour blindness is more likely to occur in men than women.

9) Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disease, is caused by a recessive allele (r), the normal condition (R) is dominant.

Mummy is a carrier for cystic fibrosis, daddy has normal alleles.

a) Complete Checkers board to show possible children.

b) Will any of their children have cystic fibrosis? Explain your answer.

10)a) Name two animal which have 19 pairs of chromosomes .

b) differentiate between genotype and phenotype.

c) in a certain species of animals in black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). Predict a genotype and phenotype of the offspring when the both parents are 'Bb' or have heterozygous black fur.

11) A homozygous Tall plant (T) bearing red coloured (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous Dwarf plant (t) bearing white flowers (r).

a) Give the Genotype and Phenotype of the F¹ generation.

b) Give the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained from the F¹ hybrid.

c) Give the dihybrid ratio and the genotype of the offspring of the F² generation when two plants of the F¹ generation above are crossed.

                 

PERIODIC TABLE 

1) The serial number of an element in the pieriodic Table is also its____. (Atomic number /mass number ).

2) The metallic character_____in a Group as one moves from top to bottom. (Increases/decreases)

3) The metallic character____ in a Period as one moves from left to right. (Increases/decreases).

4) _____is the most active nonmetal.(Chlorine/ Iodine)

5) _____is the most active metal.(Magnesium/ sodium)

6) An increase in nuclear charge____ the tendency of an atom to accept electrons. (Increases/ decreases)

7) The atomic size____as one moves from left to right across a Period.(Increases/ decreases)

8) The element in Group VIIA which is a liquid at room temperature is____. (F/ Cl/ Br)

9) Nuclear charge of an atom is the____(negative/positive) charge on the nucleus of an atom, equivalent to the atomic____(numbers/mass) of an atom.

10) Atomic size of neon is_____than the atomic size of fluorine.(More/ less)

11) With increase in nuclear charge the nuclear attraction for outer electron____(increasees/ decreases), Hence ionisation potential____(increases/ decreases). 

12) If an element has one electron in its outermost shell. Then it is likely to be____. (Non metallic/ metallic)

13) The Properties of elements are periodic functions of their____. (Atomic numbers/ mass numbers)

14) The element below sodium in the same Group would be expected to have a___. (Lower / higher) electronegativity than sodium and the element above chlorine would be expected to have a_____(lower / higher) ionisation potential than chlorine.

15) On moving from left to right in a given Period, the number of shells___. (Remains the same/ increases/ decreases)

16) On moving down a Group, the number of valence electrons_____( remains the same/ increase/ decreases)

B) CHOOSE CORRECT OPTION:

1) The chemical properties of an element depends on its:

a) atomic mass

b) atomic number

c) atomic energy

d) atomic volume

2) Total number of vertical columns (Groups) in the Long Form of the Periodic Table is :

a) 8 b) 18 c) 17 d) 16

3) The element having the lowest ionisation potential in period 3 is:

a) Na b) K c) Mg d) A

4) The number of elements present in Period 3 is :

a) 6 b) 32 c) 18 d) 8

5) On going down a Group, the number of valence electrons.

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

6) The number of Periods in the Long Form of Periodic Table is:

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

7) On moving down a Group, the size of atoms :

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

8) Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius ?

a) Cl⁻ b) K⁺ c) S²⁻ d) Ca²⁺

9) On moving from left to right in a Period the metallic character of elements:

a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains the same

d) varies irregularly

10) The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is :

a) C > B > Be > Li

b) C > Be > B > Ki

c) B > C > Be > Li

d) Be > Li > B > C

11) Which halogen has the highest electron affinity ?

a) F b) Cl c) Be d) I

12) The most electronegative element in the Period Table is:

a) N b) O c) Cl d) F

13) Which has the smallest size?

a) Na⁺ b) Al³⁺ c) Mg²⁺ d) P⁵⁺

14) Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation potential in the Periodic Table?

a) F > O > N > C

b) O > F > N > C

c) O > N > F > C

d) C > N > O > F

15) The electron affinity for noble gases is likely to be:

a) high b) small c) zero d) Positive

16) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?

a) F b) O c) O⁻ d) Na⁺

17) The size of a positive ion is:

a) more than its atom.

b) less than its atom

c) equal to its atom

d) none of the above

18) Which one of the following is correct order of the size ?

a) I > I⁻> I⁺ 

b) I > I⁺> I⁻   

c) I⁺ > I⁻> I   

d) I⁻ > I > I⁺ 

19)The size of chloride ion (Cl⁻) is

a) smaller than chlorine atom

b) bigger than chlorine atom

c) equal to that of chlorine atom

d) none of the above

20) The ionic radii of N³⁻ , O²⁻ , F⁻ and Na⁺ follow the order

a) N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺

b) N³⁻ > Na⁺ > O²⁻ > F⁻  

c) Na⁺> O²⁻ > N³⁻ > F⁻  

d) O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > N³⁻

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING:

1) The element present in the first Period.       

2) The biggest atom in the third Period.    

3) A solid halogen.   

4) The smallest element of third Period.   

5) The family of elements to which chlorine belongs.    

6) The family of elements to which sodium belongs.     

7) The family of elements to which argon and neon belongs.   

8) Least electronegative element of halogen family.    

9) A non metal which has three electrons in its outermost shell.

10) The smallest atom in the third Period.   

11) The least reactive elements in Group IA.  

12) The most metallic element in the third Period.  

13) The most nonmetallic element in the third Period.  

14) The element which is most electronegative in the third Period.

15) A greenish yellow gas other than chlorine.  

16) The most abundant halide salt.    

17) The element which has the highest ionisation potential.  

18) The element of third Period which has least ionisation potential.   

19) The most electronegative element of second period.   

20) An element in period 3 with electronegativity 3.0.   

21) The element with the least ionisation potential in the 2nd period.     

22) The element which has the highest electron affinity in the third Period.     

23) The noble gas having an electronic configuration 2,8,8.   

24) The valency of elements in Group I.  

25) An element of group VIIA, solid at room temperature.         

D) TRUE/FALSE

1) The electron present in the outermost shell are called valence electrons.   

2) In a group, atomic and ionic radii decrease from top to bottom due to increase in the number of shells.    

3) The electron affinity of elements increases in a group from top to bottom and decreases along a Period from left to right.     

4) The amount of energy required to remove a loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated atom is called ionisation potential.     

5) Electron affinity is the property of an atom to attract electrons towards itself, when combined to form a compound.   

6) Lithium resembles radium and potassium in electropositive character and univalency.     

7) The element in a Group have consecutive atomic Numbers.     

8) On going down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table, the metallic character of elements increases.     

9) The tendency of an atom of an element to donate or lose electrons is called electropositivity.           

10) Iron is a non-metal.          

E) DEFINE:

1) Periods in Periodic table

2) Group in Periodic table

3) Periodicity

E) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:

1) What are Periods ?

2) How many electrones are present in the valency shell of the element with the atomic number 18 ?

3) Explain why electron affinity of an atoms increases from left to right along a Period in the Modern Periodic Table.

4) What happens in the number of valence electrons in the atoms of elements as we go down in a Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

4) From amongst Be, B, and C, choose the element with the highest ionisation potential.

5) What is similar in the electronic structure of Li, Na, and K ?

6) Which of the following elements are in the same Group of the Periodic table ? Magnesium, Nitrogen, Beryllium, Sulphur 

7) Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original Periodic table ?

8) State the Periodic law on which Mendeleev's Periodic table was based ?

9) In the Long Form of the Periodic Table. the elements are arranged according to their mass numbers. Is this statement correct ? if not, correct it.

10) How could the atomic radius of a noblw gas compered with other elements in a Period ?

11) What similarity do halogen show in their molecular state ?

12) Why is ionization potential of O less that of N ?

13) Explain why the elements with low ionisation potential exhibit metallic properties.

14) Account for the difference in size of Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ as Fe²⁺ = 0.76 A° and Fe³⁺ = 0.64 A°.

15) Give the formula of one species positively charged and one negativity charged that will be iso-electronic with Ne.

16) Mg²⁺ ion is smaller than O³ ion  althrough both are iso-electronic. Explain 

17) What is the probable formula of the oxide of silicon ? (Silicon occurs below carbon in the Periodic Table)

18) What would you expect the formula of a compared of hydrogen with an element I to be ? ( use I as the symbol of the element.)

19) How do the nature of oxides of the elements change on moving from top to bottom in a Group of the Periodic Table?

Give example.

20) What is the common feature of the electronic configuration of the elements at the end of Period 2 and Period 3 ?

21) if an element is in group 7(or group 7A). is it likely to be metallic or nonmetallic in character ?

.

22) What is meant by a group in a Periodic Table ?

23) theelectronegativities of the elements in period 3 of the Periodic Table are as follows with elements arranged in alphabetical order:

Al    Cl     Mg     Na      P      S       Si

1.5  3.0   1.2    0.9     2.1   2.5    1.8 

Arrange the elements in the order in which they occur in the Periodic Table from left to right. ( The group 1 element first, followed by the group 2 element and so on, up to Group 7.)

24) Predict the Group of an element X if its atomic number is 16.

10) Select the correct order of radii of three species Ca, Ca⁺ and Ca²⁺

a) Ca > Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺

b) Ca²⁺ > Ca⁺ > Ca

c) Ca⁺ > Ca > Ca²⁺ 

d) Ca⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Ca

Assign suitable reason.

11) Electron affinities of two elements A and B are as follows:

A=3.79 eV and B= 3.56 eV 

Which of them will ionise more easily and why ?

12) How does the number of valence electrons vary on moving from left to right:

a) in the first Period of the Periodic Table?

b) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

c) in the second Period of the Periodic Table?

13) The elements lithium, sodium and potassium were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties.

a) What are those similar properties

b) What is the usual name of this Group or family.?

14) Which is larger, Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why?

15) Chlorine , bromine and iodine elements were put in one Group on the basis of their similar properties:

a) What are those similar properties ?

b) What is the common name of this Group or family ?

16) In the following set of elements, one element does not belong to the set. Select this element.  Give reason in support of your answer.

Calcium, Magnesium, Sodium, Beryllium .

17) Consider the following elements: Na, Ca, Al, K, Mg, Li

a) Which of these elements belongs to the same Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) Which of these elements belongs to the same Group of the Modern Periodic Table ?

18) What is the cause of periodicity of elements in the Periodic Table?

19) What are the following Groups known as?

a) Group IA

b) Group VIIA

c) Group Zero 

20) How did the following properties vary in a Period, say Period 3 ?

a) Atomic size

b) Metallic character

c) Non-metallic character

d) Ionisation potential 

e) Electron affinity 

f) Electronegativity

21) a) Name the elements of Period 3.

b) Which element in Period three is likely to react most violently with chlorine.

c) Of the 8 elements in Period 3, which is likely to form a compound of the formula XCl₃  with chlorine.

22) Match the following 

Column A 

a) Proton 

b) Sodium 

c) Barium 

d) Chlorine 

e) Electron

f)  Completed shell 

Column B 

i) An alkaline earth metal 

ii) halogen 

iii) noble gas 

iv) An alkaline metal 

v) Responsible for nuclear charge

vi) Occupied subshell 

23) Among the elements of the second Period (Li to Ne), pick out the element.

a) with the largest atomic size.

b) with the highest ionisation potential.

c) with highest electron affinity.

d) With highest electronegativity.

e) which is the most reactive metal.

f) which is the most reactive nonmetal.

24)a) How many Groups and Periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) On what basis is an element placed in a particular Period in a Group ?

c) The electronic configuration of three elements A, B and C are as follows:

A-- 2   8    18    18     8    1

B-- 2   8    18    18     7

C-- 2   8    18.   32    18   8

Find the respective Period and Group to which each of them belongs.

25) For each of the following pairs, predict which one has a greater ionization potential and greater electron affinity ?

a) I, I⁻

b) B, C

c) Li, Li⁺

26) What is the number of elements in:

a)  first Period of the Modern Periodic Table ?

b) 2nd Period of the Modern Periodic Table  ?

c) 3rd Period of the Modern Periodic Table?

27) a) What are alkali metals ?

b) In which Group and Sub groups are they are placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why do they not occur free in nature?

28) This question refery to the elements of the Periodic Table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some of the elements are shown by letters, but the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

3    4    5    6    7    8    9    10 

A    B    C   D    E    F    G    H 

11 12  13  14  15  16  17  18 

 I     J     K    L    M   N    O  P 

Which of these elements:

a) are noble gases ?

b) are halogens ?

c) are alkali metals ?

d) are elements with valency 4?

29) An element X belongs to Period 3 and Group II of the Periodic Table . State :

a) the number of valence electrons .

b) valency of the element.

c) is it metal or nonmetal.

d) the name of the element.

30) The atoms A and B have electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) and  (2,6) respectivaly.

a) to which Period do A and B belong ?

b) to which group do A and B belong ?

c) What are the valencies of A and B with respect to hydrogen ?

d) What is the formula of the compound of A and B ? Is the compound ionic or covalent in nature ?

31) An element X belongs to Period 2 and another element Y belongs to Group 15 of the Periodic Table.

a) What is the number of valence electrons in X ,?

b) What is Valency of X ?

c) What is the number of valence electrons in Y ?

d) What is the valency of Y?

32) In any vertical column of elements in the sub group A of the Periodic Table , as you go from top to bottom :

a) the elements become ____metallic (less /more)

b) the number of electronic shells ____ (increases/decreases)

c) The ionization potential ______. (decreases/ increases)

d) the electronegativity_______ (decreases/ increases).

33) a) What are noble gases ?

b) What is the speciality of the their outermost shells ?

c) in which group are they placed  ?

d) why is that Group referred to as Zero Group  ?

e) why are they referred to as inert gases ?

34) a) What are halogens ?

b) in which Group and Sub groups are they placed ?

c) What is their valency ?

d) Why are they called halogens ?

e) why do they not occur free nature ?

35) Arrange the elements of Group VIIA according to the given conditions:

a) increasing order of atomic size.

b) Increasing non metallic character.

c) increasing ionization potential.

d) increasing electron affinity.

e) decreasing electronegativity .

36) The electronic configuration of an elements T is 2, 8, 7.

a) What is the Group number of T ?

b) What is the Period number of T ?

c) How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T ?

d) What is the valency of T ?

e) is it a metal or nonmetal ?

37) Arrange the following elements as per the guidelines in brackets.

a) Cl, Mg, Na, P( in increasing order of atomic size)

b) Al, Cl, Na, S ( in increasing order of ionization potential)

c) Ar, He, Ne (in decreasing order of number of electronics shells).

d) C, Li, F, N, (in increasing order of electronegativity)

e) C, F, Li, O, (in increasing order of electron affinity)

38) The table given below shows the mass number and the number of neutrons in 4 elements -- P,Q, R, S

Elements:              P    Q    R     S 

Mass number:     12   20  23   35

No of neutrons:    6    10  12   18

a) Write down the atomic number of S.

b) Write down the electronic configuration of S.

c) To which Group S belongs ?

d) To  which Period S belongs ?

e) What will be the nature (ionic or covalent) of the compound formed by 

i) R and S

ii) P and S

39) The position of three elements X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table is as shown below:

Group 16     Group 17

     ---                   X

     ----                -----

      Y                   Z

a) What will be the valency of Z ?

b) What is the name of the family to which element Z  belongs ?

c) State whether Z is a metal or nonmetal.

d) will Z be larger or smaller than Y ?

e) State whether Z is more or less reactive than X.

40) Fill in the blanks:

a) Group 3A elements have____ electrons in their outermost shells.

b) Nitrogen has ____electrons in its outermost shell.

c) Group zero elements have_____ electrons in their outermost shells except ____.

d) The outermost shell electrons are also known as____ electrons.

e) When an atom of magnesium unites with another to form a compound. ____electrons of magnesium are primarily involved.

41) Question (a) to (e) refer to change in the properties of elements on moving left to right across a Period of the Periodic Table . For each property, choose the letter corresponding to the correct answer from choices (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

a) The non metallic character of the element:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remain the same iv) depends on the Period 

b) The electronegativity :

i) depends on the member of valence electrons.

ii) remains the same

iii) decreases  iv) increases 

c) The ionization potential 

i) goes up and down 

ii) decreases iii) increases iv) remains the same 

d) The atomic size:

i) decreases ii) increases iii) remains the same iv) sometimes increasees and sometimes decreases 

e) The electron affinity of the elements in Group 1 to 7;

i) goes up and then down 

ii) decreases and then increases

iii( increases  iv) decreases 

F) REASON BEHIND:

1) Sodium is referred to as a normal element.

2) Sodium and potassium are placed in Group I.

3) Noble gases have zero electron affinity values. Explain ?

4) Why is larger Na⁺ or K⁺ ? Why ?

5) Why is the electron affinity for F Less than that of Cl?

6) Why electron affinity of halogen is comparatively high. Give reason.

7) Ionisation potential of alkali metals is comparatively low.

8) Electronegativity of chlorine is higher than that of sulphur.  Why ?

9) Sodium and potassium are called alkali metals . Why ?

10) Why is chlorine more reactive than bromin ?

11) Why Potassium is more reactive than sodium.

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 

A) Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative out of those given with brackets:

1) Control and coordination of various activities of a body take place due to___(nervous system/ endocrine system/ nervous and endocrine system)       

2) Hormones are secreted directly into the___ (blood/organs).        

3)____ secrets oxytocin. (posterior lobe of pituitary/ anterior lobe of pituitary /ovary)

4) ADH is secreted by the____ (interior pituitary/posterior pituitary/brain)

5) Oxytocin causes contraction of the___ (vessels/uterus/ body)

6) hypothyroidism in adults leads to____(cretinism / myxoedema/goitre)

7) The_____ is known as the emergency hormone. (glucagon/ adrenaline /oestrogen)

8) Addison's disease is caused due to deficiency of____ (mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoids/glycogen/insulin)

9) Cretinism is caused due to the deficiency of____(thyroxine/ blood/progesterone)

10) Hormones are___ which help to co-ordinate the functions of the of the body(enzymes/ chemical substances)

11) chemically some hormones are___, some steroids and some amines.(carbohydrates/ proteins)

12) The glands with duct are called ____(endocrine gland/ exocrine gland /vessels)

13) Beta cells of islets of langerhans produce____( insulin/ thyroxine/oestrogen)

14) Hormones are called __. (information molecules/ bio catalyst/catalysts)

15) Deficiency of insulin results in diabetes___.(mellitus/ insipidus/ myxoedema)

16) Malfunctioning of thyroid gland thyroid in infant causes__ ( cretinism/myxoedema/goitre)

17) ____is a disorder caused by excess thyroid hormone.(myxoedema/ simple goitre/ exophthalmic goitre)

B) Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative out of those given in the list :::[Larynx, hormone, gignatism, anterior pituitary, thymus, thyroid gland, adrenal]

1) thyroid is located close to___.         

2) The chemical substances secreted by the endocrine system is known as____.         

3) over secretion of somatotropic hormone in children leads to__.           

4) follicle stimulating hormone is produced by_____.            

5) _____ gland is partly and endocrine and partly lymphoid.        

6) exothermic goitre is caused due to the over activity of___.          

7) cortex and medulla are to regaions of____ gland.       

C) Complete the following table.

Gland/organ. Hormone   function

1) _____       Vasopressin  ______.          

2) _____       Prolactin        _______.         

3) _____          _____     

4) pancreas    ____         ________.                

5) _______      ____         increases heart beat.            

6) _____. Thyroid stimulating hormone    ___.      

                     

7) Islets of langerhans    _______.      ______ .  

8) ______      Adrenaline      ______      

9) ________.  Thyroxine        ______.       

10) ______         LH                 _______       

11) ______  oestrogen           ______.          

12) Alpha cells _____.           ______.            

13)_____          ___  protruding eyes.            

14) Lachrymal _____.             ______.         

15) ______          ______.  Gignatism.    

16)_____ testosterone        ______.     

17) Adrenal  ______             _______.     

18) ______       ______       influences metabolism of cells.     

19) Lachrymal _____        _________.        

20) _______ growth hormone  _____.      

D) NAME THE FOLLOWING::

1) The expansion of STH and ACTH.        

2) The two portions of adrenal gland .      

3) The cause of diabetes mellitus.     

4) The gland which is called master gland .   

5) The other name of hormone.     

6) The two hormones secreted by neurohypophysis.    

7) The disease caused by the deficiency of STH in children.  

8) The hormone that promotes the growth of in our body.     

 

9) The hormone which controls the water exchange in the Renal tubules.   

10) The hormone associated with lactation in mammals.       OR 

The hormone of pituitary that helps in child birth.        

11) The gland which is exocrine as well as endocrine                  OR

The gland which which secrets insulin.    

12) A condition caused due to over secretion of thyroxine .    

13) The disease caused by the over secretion of STH in children.      

14) The types of glands that secrete hormones.      

15) The disease caused by the deficiency of Iodine.      

16) The structure which controls the master gland.    

17) The hormones of the pituitary gland which controls the activity of adrenal gland.          

18) Organic substances which act as biocatalyst.     

19) The hormone which controls (i.e., reduces) the level of sugar in blood, and the gland which secretes it.   

20) The diseases caused by the malfunctioning of thyroid gland.     

21) The two types of cells seen in islets of Langerhans.        

22) The hormones that control blood glucose level.    

23) The hormone that controls the basal metabolic rate.      OR

The hormone secreted by thyroid gland.        

24) The gland which functions actively in emergency situations. OR 

an endocrine gland which produces emergency hormone.      

25) The hormone secreted by beta cell of islet of langerhans.       OR

The hormone secreted by Beta cells of pancreas.       

26) The hormone that releases glucose into the blood.    

E) MATCH THE COLUMNS

Column I 

1) Cretinism 

2) Diabetes mellitus 

3) insulin shock 

4) Gignatism 

5) Exothalmic goitre

Column II 

a) shortage of glucose in blood

b) over secretion of growth hormone

c) excess of glucose in blood

d) over secretion of thyroxine

e) dwarfism and mental retardation.

F) MATCH THE COLUMNS

Column I 

1) acromegaly     

2) Addison's disease  

3) insulin shock  

4) Cretinism   

5) Dwarfism   

Column II 

a) under secretion of adrenal cortex.

b) under secretion of thyroxine in children.

c) over secretion of growth hormone.

d) under secretion of growth hormone.

e) over secretion of insulin.

G) MATCH THE COLUMNS::

Column I 

1) Myxoedema.   

2) Tetany

3) Gignatism.  

4) diabetes insipidus 

5) Diabetes mellitus  

Column II 

a) hyposecretion of growth hormone during growth years.

b) under secretion of insulin

c) decreased calcium in the the  blood.

d) under secretion of thyroxine in adult of thyroxine in adult.

e) under secretion of posterior pituitary.

H) SHORT QUESTIONS:::

1) Name four hormones secreted from the anterior pituitary.    

2) What hormones are separated from the posterior lobe of pituitary ?     

3) What is the other name of insulin ?       

4) Which hormone promotes the the reabsorption of sodium ions from the renal tubules ?      

5) some adult women may develop facial hair. What may be the cause of it ?      

6) State three characteristics of hormones.

7) Name three organs that are endocrine as well as exocrine in function, Also name their endocrine secretions.

8) What is acromegalic condition and which hormone is involved in it ?

9) Why are the chemical signals of the hormones slower than the nerve impulses?

10) Name the hormone and endocrine gland which require iodine for their functioning.

11) Name the main chemical substance present in thyroxine?       

12) if you stand to make your maiden speech before a large audience your mouth dries up and heart beat increases. what brings about these feelings?    

13) What is the function of anti diuretic hormone(ADH)?

14)a) What is diabetes mellitus? 

b) How it is caused ?

15) Where is the pituitary gland located ?

16) What is the function of somatotropic hormone? Name the diseases caused due to the over and under secretion of this hormone.

17) Why are hormones called chemical messengers ?

18)a) Where is thyroid gland present ?

b) Which hormones are secreted by it ?

19) What is the diabetes insipidus ?

20) Give the main functions of:

A) Testosterone

B) Oestradiol

C) progesterone

D) Relaxin

E) Oxytocin

21) GIVE FUNCTION OF THE FOLLOWING:

A) thyroxine 

B) insulin

22) Name the endocrine gland which is well developed in children but disappears in adult. What can be the possible function of this gland ?

23) Name the blood vessels which transport the hormones.    

24) STATE the effects of over secretion of the following:

A) thyroxine.             

B) parathormone.        

C) somatotropin.     

D) adrenaline.      

25) Name some endocrine glands present in men.

26) In Which part Adrenaline is produced ?      

27) Name the hormone produced by the following glands in each case state one function of the hormone.

A) kidney 

B) pancreas

C) adrenal medulla

28) Name the hormone secreted by the delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans.     

29) What is goitre?

30)a) What are endocrine glands

b)  What do they secrete.

31) Write briefly about the symptoms and causes of:

a) Exophthalmic goitre.

b) Diabetes mellitus 

32) Explain why adrenaline is called the emergency hormone.

33) Define hormone:

34)a) Name the endocrine cells present in the pancreas.        

b) Name two hormones secreted by above-mentioned cells.  

c) Mention one main function of each hormone named in (b).     

35) Define exocrine glands.

36) Given below is a set of terms belonging to a common category. Find the category and the odd term:

A) steroid, cortisone, testosterone, adrenaline, prolactin.

37) State whether the following statement is true or false. If false rewrite the correct statement by changing the first or last word only.

Hormones are secreted directly into the organs.

38) Write brief statement explaining the following:

People living in hilly regions usually suffer from simple goitre .

39) State whether the following statement is true or false. If false, rewrite the correct statement by changing the first word only.

Testosterone is an androgen.

40) Name the hormone which lead to the following conditions:

A) Diabetes mellitus.     

B) growth of beard in women.    

C) Myxoedema.      

D) Gignatism.  

E) exothermic goitre. 

41) State whether the following statement is true or false. If false write the correct statement by changing the last word only.

# The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete insulin.

Short Answer Type Questions 

1) The pituitary gland produces a hormone which controls the amount of water in the blood.

a) What is the name of the hormone ?

b) What effect would more of this hormone being produced have on the urine ?

c) Suggest why the body need to re-absorb more water.

d) Why are hormonal reactions generally slower than nervous reactions ?

2) Explain the following:

a) Role of insulin in maintaining blood sugar level.

b) Acceleration of body growth during puberty.

c) Regulation of secondary sexual characters by pituitary.

 

3) Explain briefly:

a) The pituitary gland is called the master gland.

b) Adrenal is also known as 'emergency hormone'

c) The thymus is larger and more from prominent in children ( below twelve) than in adults.

d) Older people tend to feel more cold.

e) Iodine rich food must be included in our diet.

4) What will happen if:

a) adrenal gland is a removed

b) Blood sugar level fails?

c) thyroid does not function properly ?

5) Name the following conditions:

a) Passage of much glucose in urine.       

b) Overdose of insulin makes the diabetic patient unconscious.    

6) Explain the formation:

a) Some ladies develop beard, moustache and masculine voice.

b) Mouth dries up and heart beat increases during maiden speech.

c) Our hair stands on their ends during fear.

d) Milk is secreted from the breast of the mother during sucking by the infant.

7) mention against the three types of cells of the islets of Langerhans, the name of the hormone they Secrete.

A) Alpha cells.    

B) Beta cells.   

C) Delta cells.      

8) Name and locate four endocrine glands

9) Given below in the box are a set of 12 biological terms which can be matched into 6 pairs. Of the six pairs, one has been done for you as an example. Write out the remaining 5 matching pairs made by you as 1 to 5.

[ thyroid, alveoli, adrenal medulla, lungs, nephron, chlorophyll, thyroxine, Garden pea, adrenalin, thylakoid , Rhizobium , kidney ]

example: Nephron -- kidney 

I) DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN:

1) acromegaly/ Myxoedema

2) Diabetes mellitus/ diabetes insipidus .

3) hormone / enzyme 

4) Dwarfism/ Gignatism

5) insulin/ glucagon 

6) simple goitre/ exophthalmic goitre

7) cretinism/ myxoedema

8) diabetes insipidus/ Diabetes mellitus.

J) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

Select the correct answer out of the four available choices given under each question.

1) Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be a symptom of hypothyroidism ?

A) Mental sluggishness

B) slow reflexes

C) feeling cold

D) loss of weight.

2) Pituitary hormones are not involved in the regulation of which of the following?

A) thyroid gland cortex

B) adrenal

C) Islet of Langerhans

D) overy

3) Which hormone contains Iodine?

A) thyroxine 

B) Oxytocin 

C) insulin 

D) Oestrogen

4) Which organ is the site of glucose to glycogen conversion?

A) thyroid 

B) pancreas 

C) liver 

D) pituitary

5) Which organ produces a hormone which stimulates thyroxine production?

A) adrenal 

B) liver 

C) thyroid 

D) pituitary

6) which organ produces digestive enzymes and hormones

A) pancreas 

B) thyroid 

C) Pituitary

D) liver 

7) which of the following is an effect ?

A) conversion of glucose to glycogen.

B) increase in flow of blood to skeletal muscles.

C) increased water reabsorption in kidney.

D) production of sperm cells.

8) Deficiency of which during early infancy causes cretinism ?

A) adrenaline

B) insulin

C) Oestrogen

D) thyroxine 

9) Which hormone is responsible for injecting milk from the mammary glands glands ?

A) Oestrogen

B) FSH

C) LH

D) Oxytocin.

QUESTIONS BASED ON DIAGRAMS 

1) Given below is an outline figure of human body.

a) label the parts numbered 1-9.

b) Give function of any three endocrine glands.

c) Name a gland which acts both as exocrine and endocrine gland.

2) The given below diagram is the diagrammatic sketches of some endocrine glands, observe the figures and answer the following questions:

a) Label the parts numbered 1 to 5.

b) Name the hormones secreted by 2 and 5.

c) Which chemicals in our body are greatly affected by harmones ?

d) What is the chemical nature of hormones ?

e) Name the elements related with the functioning of hormones secreted by the structures 2 and 5.

HYDROGEN CHLORID (1)

A) Answer the following:

1) Why is Hydrogen chloride not collected over water ?

2) Choose the letter A, B C or D to match the description given below:

A) Ammonia 

B) Hydrogen chloride

C) Hydrogen sulphide

D) Sulphur dioxide

This has gives a white precipitate when reacted with silver nitrate solution acidified with dilute nitric scid.

3) A colourless gas (G) is passed through a solution of silver nitrate, when a curdy white precipitate (P) is formed. The precipitate is insoluble in di. Nitric acid but soluble in Ammonia solution. Name G and P.

4) Why does hydrogen chloride fume in moist air ?

5) Hydrochloric acid is not very expensive. giuve reason.

6) Why is high temperature is avoided in the preparation of hydrogen chloride from sodium sulphate and concentrated sulphuric acid.

7) Conc. nitric acid is not used for the preparation of HCl. Why ?

8) Explain why the following statement is not correct ?

"Lead chloride can be prepared by adding dilute hydrochloric acid to lead sulphate solution.

9) From the following list of substances: ammonium chloride, ammonium nitrate, chlorine, dilute hydrochloric acid, iron, lead nitrate, manganese (IV) oxide, silver nitrate, sodium nitrate, Sodium and nitrite and sulphur-

 Choose those which meet the description given below:

 Two compounds whose aqueous solutions give white percipitate with dilute hydrochloric acid.

10) State what is observed when hydrochloric acid is added to Silver nitrate solution.

11) What do you observe when concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to lead (IV) oxide with the warming ?

12) What would you see when hydrogen chloride is mixed with Ammonia ?

13) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution.

14) Write balanced equation for the following reaction:

Red lead (trilead tetroxide) is warmed with concentrated hydrochloric acid.

15) Write balance chemical equation for the following reaction:

Zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

16) Select from the list given below (A to F), the one substance which matches the given description.

A.  Ammonia 

B. Copper oxide 

C. Copper sulphate 

D. hydrogen chloride 

E. hydrogen sulphide 

F. lead bromide

 This compound can be oxidised to chlorine.

17) Write a balanced equation for the following reaction:

 Sodium chloride from sodium carbonate solution and dilute hydrochloric acid.

F) COMPLETE AND BALANCE THE EQUATION: 

1) Pb₃O₄+ + 8HCl(con) --> 3PbCl₂

2) Zn+ 2HCl(dil)----->ZnCl₂

3) KCl + H₂SO₄(ᶜᵒⁿᶜ) -> .... + .....

4) Cu + HCl(dil) --> .... + ......

5) Cuo + HCl(dil) ---> ..... + .....

6) Cuo +[O]+ HCl(conc) --> 

             ...+ .... + ......

7) K₂O + HCl(dil) -> .... + .......

8) HCl <⁵⁰⁰ᶜ=> ...... + .......

9) HNO₃(conc)+ HCl(conc) -----> 

         ........ + ........ + ........

10) Pb(NO₃O)₂ + 2HCl(dil) --> ...

11) MnO₂(aq) + HCl --> ...+ ...+ ....

12) KMnO₄+ HCl(conc) --> 

          .....+ ..... + 8H₂O + Cl₂

C) NAME THE FOLLOWING :

1) Products obtained by passing Chlorine and sulphur dioxide together through water.

2) Drying agent which is used to dry Hydrogen chloride.

3) A gas Which yields dense white fumes when treated with Hydrogen chloride.

4) The gas obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

5) The gas obtained by treating ferrous sulphide with Hydrochloric acid.

6) Covalent compound Which becomes electrovalent when dissolved in water. 

7) The anion present in the following: when compound A is warmed with Conc. Sulphuric acid gives a gas Which fumes in moist air and gives dense white fumes with Ammonia.

8) The lead compound that can be used to oxidise Hydrogen chloride to chlorine.

9) A solution which gives Chlorine on oxidation. 

10) A substance that turns moist starch iodide paper blue.

D) T/F. CORRECT IF IT IS FALSE :

1) Hydrochloric acid is found in the stomach of mammals.    

2) Hydrogen chloride gas is obtained by treating metals with Hydrochloric acid.

3) When moist blue litmus paper is introduced into a jar of HCL, it turns red.

4) HCL gas is not combustible but it supports combustion.

5) HCL gas partially ionized in an aqueous solution.

6) HCL acid is not used to remove rust from iron sheets.

7) HCL acid gives brown fumes of ammonium chloride with Ammonia.

8) In the laboratory, HCL gas is collected by downward displacement of air.

9) HCL gas is a colourless odourless and tasteless gas.

10) HCL gas is insoluble in water.

Each Questions carries 2 marks 

1) Identify the substances describe below.

a) Colourless liquid used for the preparation of aqua -regia; turns wet blue litmus red; reacts with silver nitrate solution forming a dense white precipitate .

b) Greenish yellow gas which combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen chloride gas.

2) How would you represent Hydrogen chloride and Hydrochloric acid by chemical formula? Why do they differ ?

3) What must be added to sodium chloride to obtain hydrogen chloride? 

b) Write the equation for the reaction which takes place above.

4) Select from the list below, the gas which matches the description given and answer the questions that follow:

       Ammonia, chlorine, HCL, Sulphur dioxide.

When gas C is mixed with gas B ( which turns moist red litmus to blue). dense white fumes are seen and there is no other product.

a) What is the name of gas B and gas C ?

b) What is the name of the product of the reaction between gas B and gas C ?

 

5) Manganese(IV) oxide, lead(IV) oxide and red lead (Pb₃O₄) react with concentrated hydrochloric acid liberating chlorine.

a) What is the common property being by these metal oxides ?

b) Write the equation for the reaction of concentratated Hydrochloric acid with Pb₃O₄. 

6) Write the observation and balanced equations for the following reactions:

Excess of ammonia hydroxide is added to a substance obtained by adding hydrochloride acid in silver nitrate solution.

7) Salts A and E undergo reaction (a) and (b) respectively. Identify the anion present in these salts on the basis of these reactions.

a) When Silver Nitrate solution is added to a solution of A, a white precipitate insoluble in dilute nitric acid, is formed.

b) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to E produced an effervescence. The gas produced turns lime water milky but does not affect acidified potassium dichromate solution.

8) The following series of reactions is carried out:

a) HCL is passed into cold water.

b) Ammonia is passed into the resulting solution.

c) Sodium hydroxide solution is added to the product of (b) and solution in the warmed.

c) Silver nitrate is added to the solution resulting from (c) (Assume that the sodium hydroxide is not in excess)

 Answer the question (i), (ii), (III) and about steps and respectively name (iv) about steps (a),(b), (c) and (d) respectively.

i) 1. Name the product.

    2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

ii) 1. Name the product.

     2. State whether it is ionic or covalent.

iii) 1. Name the products.

      2. Which of the product/s is/are covalent?

      3. Write the equation for the reaction.

iv) 1. What would you see ?

      2. Write the equation for the reaction.

HYDROGEN CHLORIDE (2)

1) The gastric juice secreted by the walls of the stomach contains:

a) sulphuric acid  b) hydrochloric acid c) nitric acid  d) acetic acid

2) When the equal volumes of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are exposed to diffuse sunlight, the reaction:

a) does not takes place  b) takes place at at moderate speed c) is explosive in nature d) none

3) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt the acid used is:

a) dilute sulphuric acid b) glacial Acetic acid c) conc. sulphuric acid d) carbonic acid

4) In the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory, the reaction mixture should be:

a) kept below 10°C b) kept below 200°C c) kept above 200°C d) any of these 

5) The drying agent used in the laboratory the preparation of dry HCL gas is:

a) Phosphorus pentoxide  b) anhydrous calcium sulphate  c) calcium oxide  d) conc. sulphuric acid

6) The salt formed when sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid are heated below 200°C is :

a) sodium hydrogen sulphate  b) sodium sulphate c) sodium bisulphate d) either a or c

7) In order to find that a given jar is filled with HCl gas, a glass rod dipped in ____ solution is held near its mouth.

a) ammonia  b) caustic soda c) caustic potash d) barium chloride

8) Hydrogen chloride gas is collected :

a) by the upward displacement of air  b) downward displacement of air c) downward displacement of water  d) over the mercury 

9) HCL gas extremely soluble in water. One volume up water at 20°C can absorb:

a) 200 volumes of HCL  b) 450 volumes of HCL c) 150 volumes of HCL d) 800 volumes of HCL 

10) HCl gas turns alkaline phenolphthalein solution from:

a) pink to green b) pink to blue c) pink to colourless d) pink to yellow 

11) The advantage of using inverted funnel for the absorption of HCl gas in water is:

a) it prevents back suction into the reaction mixture 

b) it provides large surface area of water for absorption 

c) it prevents explosion in apparatus d) both a and b

12) A non metallic hydroxide, which forms dense white fumes with HCl gas is compound of:

a) nitrogen and hydrogen  b) nitrogen and oxygen  c) nitrogen and carbon d) nitrogen and sulphur

13) A metallic carbonates react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form theit respective :

a) chlorides and water  b) chloride and carbon dioxide gas c) chlorides, water and carbon dioxide gas  d) none

14) When dilute HCl is mixed with clear solution of silver nitrate, a precipitate is formed which is:

a) yellow in colour  b) silvery in colour c) curdy white in colour d) blue in colour

15) Aqua region is a  mixture of:

a) 3 parts of conc. HCL and 1 part of conc. HNO₃

b) 1 part of conc. HCL and 3 parts of conc.HNO₃

c) equal parts of conc. HCL and conc. HNO₃ d) none

16)) Black copper(II ) oxide is placed in a beaker containing hydrochloric acid. After 1 hour the colour of reaction mixture changes to:

a) grey b) brown c) red d) blue 

17) A chemical/chemicals which can dissolve gold is:

a)! Aqua Fortis b) aqua regia c) aqua pure d) none

18) An acid commonly applied on the surface of metal before soldering or welding is:

a) conc. sulphuric acid  b) conc. nitric acidic  c) conc. acetic acid d) conc. hydrochloric acid 

19) The common name of hydrochloric acid is :

a) Marine acid b) muriatic acid c) solution of HCl d) none

20) Traces of hydrochloric acid is present in:

a) pancreatic juice  b) gastric juice  c) bile secreted by liver d) none

21) When equal volume of a mixture of hydrogen and chlorine are exposed to direct sunlight, they:

a) do not react b) react at a moderate speed c) react violently d) none

22) The acid with reacts with metallic chlorides, either without heating or with heating is:

a) conc. Nitric acid b) glacial acetic acid c) dilute sulphuric acid d) conc. Sulphuric acid 

23) conc. dilute sulphuric acid react with the Iron (II) chloride on heating to form:

a) iron(II ) sulphate and HCL only  b) iron(II ) sulphate, water and HCL only c)  iron(III ) sulphate and HCL gas only  d) iron(III ) sulphate, water and HCL gas only 

24) concentrated or dilute sulphuric acid does not react with lead chloride, because:

a) lead is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical series

b) lead is higher than the hydrogen in electrochemical series

c)!an insoluble thin layer of lead sulphate is found over lead chloride , which cuts off chemical reaction d) none

25) In laboratory , hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating conc. H₂SO₄ with:

a) potassium chloride  b) magnesium chloride c) sodium chloride d) ammonium chloride

26) Sodium chloride is used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas because:

a) it is cheapest chemical  b) it is readily available c) it reacts readily with conc. H₂SO₄ even without heating  d) all of these 

27) The sodium chloride and conc. Sulphuric acid mixture should not be heated beyond 200°C, because:

a)! sodium sulphate so formed fuses with glass apparatus and makes it useless 

b) rate of evolution of HCl gas is very high and hence it is difficult to collect 

c) the apparatus may crack because sodium sulphate acts as a bad conductor of heat 

d) all of these 

28) During the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas from common salt and conc. H₂SO₄,  the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, only when the temperature of mixture is:

a) 300°C b) 250°C c) 220°C d) below 200°C

29) Hydrogen chloride gas is heavier than air because its vapour density is:

a) 17.75  b) 18.25 c) 36.5 d) 22

30) 1 volume of water at room temperature will absorb :

a) 750 c.c of HCl gas b) 200 c.c of HCl gas c) 450 c.c of HCl gas d) 650 c.c of HCl gas

31) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by bubbling it through conc.H₂SO₄  because:

a) HCl gas does not react chemically with conc.H₂SO₄

b) conc. H₂SO₄ being dehydrating agent absorbs moisture present in the HCL gas

c) conc.H₂SO₄ is least volatile acid and hence it's vapours do not mix with HCl gas.

d) all of these 

32) An Alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with HCl gas is :

a) sodium hydroxide  b) potassium hydroxide solution  c) ammonium hydroxide solution  d) calcium hydroxide solution

33) When silver nitrate solution is treated with hydrochloric acid a thick curdy white precipitate of silver chloride is formed. This white precipitate dissolves in excess of:

a) sodium hydroxide solution  b) ammonium hydroxide solution c) potassium hydroxide solution d) calcium hydroxide solution 

34) When hydrochloric acid is added in lead nitrate solution, then a precipitate of lead chloride is formed which is :

a) white in colour  b) light yellow in colour  c) reddish brown in colour d) deep yellow in colour 

35) The precipitate lead chloride in question 34 (above) along with rest of the reaction mixture is boiled. It is seen 

a) percipetate changes to orange colour 

b) no changes takes in precipitate

c) precipitate redissolves and a colourless liquid is formed d) none

36) The solution of nitrate/s of a metal/s which form white precipitate with dil. HCl are:

a) Zn(NO₃)₂ sol. b) Pb(NO₃)₂ sol. c) AgNO₃ d) both b and c 

37) A salt of sodium which on boiling with conc. HCl gives reddish brown fumes of nitrogen gas is :

a) Na₂S b) NaHCO₃ c) Na₂SO₄ d) NaNO₃

38) When calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute HCl , the products formed are:

a) calcium chloride and water 

b) calcium chloride and carbon dioxide

c) calcium chloride, water and CO₂ gas 

d) calcium chloride, water and carbon monoxide gas

39) Which is not a correct statement?

When Na₂CO₃ is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid ?

a) a lot of effervescence takes place 

b) carbon dioxide gas evolved 

c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide gas evolved

d) both a and b 

40) Iron savings reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form:

a) iron(II) chloride and water b) iron(II ) chloride and hydrogen c) Iron(III ) chloride and hydrogen  d) Iron (III) chloride and water 

41) In a beaker containing dilute HCl is poured 2g of black copper oxide(II ). The beaker is left undisturbed for one hour. After this time interval the colour of reaction mixture is:

a) colourless b) light green c) blue d) yellow 

42) The products formed when magnesium sulphide is treated with dil. HCl are:

a) magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas 

b) magnesium chloride and sulphur

c) magnesium chloride and hydrogen sulphide gas d) none

43) The product formed when potassium hydroxide sulphide (KHS) is treated with dilute HCl are:

a) KCL and sulphur b)  KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, H₂S and water d) KCL and H₂S gas only

44) The products formed when potassium hydrogen sulphite[KHSO₃] is treated with dilute HCl are:

A) KCL and sulphur b) KCL, water and sulphur c) KCL, SO₂ gas and water d) KCL, H₂S gas and water 

45) The products formed when zinc sulphite is treated with HCl are:

a) zinc chloride and SO₂ gas b) zinc chloride and SO₃ gas c) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur  d) zinc chloride, SO₂ gas and water 

46) The products formed when sodium thiosulphate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid are:

a) sodium chloride, water and SO₂ gas

b) sodium chloride, water and sulphur

c) sodium chloride, water, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

d) sodium chloride, SO₂ gas and sulphur 

47) When copper nitrate crystals are boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) copper(II ) chloride and water

b) copper(I ) chloride and nitric acid 

c) copper(II ) chloride and nitric acid

d) copper (II) chloride, water and nitric acid 

48) When MnO₂ boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) manganese chloride and water 

b) manganese chloride and chlorine 

c) manganese chloride, water, chlorine d) none

49) When lead dioxide is boiled with conc.HCl, the product formed are:

a)  lead (II) chloride and water

b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine

c) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine

d) lead+II ) chloride, water and chlorine 

50) When red lead oxide [Pb₃O₄] is boiled with conc. HCl, the products formed are:

a) lead(II ) chloride and chlorine b) lead(IV ) chloride and chlorine c) lead (II) chloride and water d) lead(II) chloride, water and chlorine 

51) When potassium permanganate [KMnO₄] is treated conc. HCL, the product of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and water

b) potassium chloride, manganese chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, manganese chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

52) When potassium dichromate(K₂Cr₂O₇) is boiled with conc.HCl, the products of reaction are:

a) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and water 

b) potassium chloride, chromium chloride and chlorine gas

c) potassium chloride, chromium chloride, water and chlorine gas

d) none of these 

53) Which is not a correct statement ?

Hydrochloric acid is used in:

a) the manufacture of dyes, drugs and paints

b) soldering and welding of metal 

c) food preservative industry 

d) leather industry 

54) The aim of fountain experiment is to prove:

a) HCL turns blue litmus red 

b) HCl is denser than air

c) HCl is highly soluble in water

d) HCL fumes in moist air 

1) Identify the following :

a) Name of experiment which shows that hydrogen chloride gas is extremely soluble in water.

b) A gas liberated when dilute hydrochloric acid is treated with magnesium.

c) A coloured gas which reacts with hydrogen gas to form hydrogen chloride gas.

d) A gas liberated when calcium hydrogen carbonate is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

e) A white percipitate formed when sodium chloride solution is treated with silver nitrate solution.

f) A concentrated acid (1 part) which forms aqua regia, when mixed with three parts of conc. Hydrochloric acid.

g) An element liberated when sodium thiosulphate solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.

h) A salt of sodium on treating with dilute hydrochloric acid liberates Sulphur dioxide gas.

i) A nitrate of a metal (other than silvery nitrate), which forms while precipitate when treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

j) Name the gas evolved when potassium sulphide is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid.

k) Name the gas evolved when hydrochloric acid is made to react with manganese dioxide.

l) Name an acid which on mixing with silver nitrate solution produces a white percipetate which is soluble excess of ammonium hydroxide .

m) Name the gas that is produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

2) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket.

a) The common name for hydrochloric acid is ______.(Muriatic acid/Aqua Fortis)

b) The traces of hydrochloric acid are present in ____.(pancreatic juice/ gastric juice)

c) Hydrogen gas and chlorine gas react____ when exposed to direct sunlight.(slowly/ explosively)

d) All metallic chlorides on heating with concentric____liberate hydrogen chloride gas.( nitric acid/sulphuric acid)

e) In laboratory hydrogen chloride gas is prepared by heating_____with conc. Sulphuric acid.(calcium chloride/sodium chloride)

f) During the preparation of hydrogen chloride from common salt and concentric Sulphuric acid, the salt formed is sodium hydrogen sulphate, if the reaction mixture is kept _____200°C (above/below)

g) Hydrogen chloride is collected by the upward displacement of air because its vapour density is____ as compared to air being 14.4. (36.5/18.5)

h) 1 volume up water at room temperature absorbs____ volumes of hydrogen chloride gas. (700/450)

i) Hydrogen chloride gas is dried by passing it through____. (Phosphorus pentoxide/conc. Sulphuric acid)

j) An alkaline solution which gives dense white fumes with hydrochloric acid gas is ____. (Sodium hydroxide/ammonium hydroxide)

k) Quicklime is not used to dry HCL because _____. (CaO is alkaline/ CaO is acidic/ CaO is a neutral)

l) potassium sulphite on reacting hydrochloric acid releases ____gas.(Cl₂/SO₂/ H₂S) 

m) dry hydrogen chloride gas can be collected by _____displacement of air.(downward/ upward) is_____. (sodium hydrogen sulphate/sodium sulphate/chlorine)

n) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is _____.(Conc. H₂SO₄/conc. HNO₃/conc HCL)

3) Give balanced chemical equation for the following:

a) sodium thiosulphate and dilute HCl.

b) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and dilute HCl.

c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid and potassium permanganate crystals.

d) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide.

e) Action of hydrochloric acid on sodium bicarbonate .

f) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium sulphite.

g) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron.

4) State one Relevant Observation for each of the following:

1) When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium carbonate crystals.

2) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on iron(II) sulphide.

3) Lead nitrate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid and heated.

4) A small piece of zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.

5) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

6) hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air.

 

2 Marks questions 

1)a) What is the property of concentrated sulphuric acid which allows it to be used in the preparation of hydrogen chloride and nitric acid ?

b) What property of hydrogen chloride is demonstrated when it is collected by the downward)?

2) Write balanced chemical equations for the following the reactions:

a) zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

b) calcium bicarbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid.

3) What is observed when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.

4) 

a) Name the experiment illustrated above.

b) Which property of hydrogen chloride is demonsrated by this experiment ?

5) a) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution ?

b) Write a balance chemical equation for the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphite.

6) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) Identify the gas Y.

b) What property of gas Y does the experiment demonstrate ?

7) a) Name two acids used in the formation of Aqua regia.

b) What is the ratio of these acids ?

8) In the laboratory preparation of HCl gas from sodium chloride, state, why the following are preferred.

a) conc. H₂SO₄ as reactant.

b) temperature of the reaction mixture below 200°C.

9) The diagram shows a simple arrangement of the fountain experiment:

a) Name the two gases you have studied which can be used in this experiment.

b) What is the common property demonstrated by this experiment?

10) Give an equation of HCl gas by synthesis. State to condition involved in its synthesis.

11) Why are conventional drying agent such as calcium oxide and Phosphorus pentoxide not used for drying moist HCl? Give equations 

12) Name two soluble nitrates which can be converted into insoluble chlorides by the use of dilute HCl. Support your answer by chemical equations .

3 Marks Questions 

1) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride 

a) Identify A and B 

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas jar filled hydrogen chloride ?

2) To a solution of hydrogen chloride, the following substances are added separately in small portions . Copy and complete the table given below.

No.  Substance added   Gas evolved   odour 

1.  Sodium sulphite         -----                  ____

2. Calcium carbonate     ____                ___

3. Magnesium ribbon.    ____.               _____

3) In and the laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid, HCl gas is dissolved in water.

a) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement used for the absorption of HCl in water.

b) Why is such an arrangement necessary?  giuve two reasons.

c)  Write the chemical equations for the laboratory preparation of HCl gas when the reactants are:

    i) below 200°C

    ii) above 200°C

4) Answer the following questions pertaining The laboratory person hydrogen chloride.

a) Write an equation for the laboratory refraction of hydrogen chloride.

b)  Name the drying agent used.

c) Name the method of collecting hydrogen chloride gas.

5) When concentrated hydrochloric acid is treated with potassium permanganate crystal a greenish yellow gas is given out.

a)  Name the gas evolved 

b) Write fully balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

c) Is hydrochloric acid acting as oxidizing agent or reducing agent?

6) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on the reaction:

a) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition/s if any.

b) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric acid ?

c) How is the gas collected ?

7) How will you obtain the following from dil. HCL acid ? Given equation 

a) hydrogen

b) carbon dioxide 

c) sulphur dioxide.

8) a) Hydrogen is burn in a greenish yellow gas A then another gas B is formed . The gas B gives dense white fumes with ammonia liquor . Name the gas A and B.

b)  Write the chemicals equations in support of your answer in (a).

9) what is an Aqua regia? How does it help in dissolving gold or platinum? Support your answer with chemical equations.

10) Write balanced chemical reaction for the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid with each of the following:

a) iron

b) sodium hydrogen carbonate

c) iron (III) sulphide

11) The diagram shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride.

a) identify A and B.

b) Write the equation for the reaction.

c) How would you check whether or not the gas is filled with hydrogen chloride ?

12) a) Name the acid used for the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in the laboratory. Why is this particular acid preferred to other acids ?

b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation hydrogen chloride gas.

b) For the preparation of hydrochloric acid in laboratory:

    i) Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible ?

   ii) What arrangement is done to dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water ?